Nursing Elites

1. What ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST depression
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Elevated ST segments

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct ECG change associated with hyperkalemia is ST depression. Hyperkalemia typically presents with ECG changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and finally, ST segment depression. Flattened T waves are more commonly associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in hypokalemia as well. Elevated ST segments are not a typical ECG finding in hyperkalemia.

2. A patient with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What does this indicate?

• A. An air leak
• B. A blocked chest tube
• C. Drainage from the site
• D. Blood clot in the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent complications such as lung collapse. A blocked chest tube would typically result in absent or fluctuating bubbling. Drainage from the site would be observed in the collection chamber, not the water seal chamber. A blood clot in the chest tube would lead to cessation of drainage.

3. A nurse is administering insulin to a patient after misreading their glucose as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• B. Monitor for hyperkalemia
• C. Administer glucose IV
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Insulin administration based on a misread glucose level can lead to hypoglycemia due to the unnecessary lowering of blood sugar levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia involves assessing the patient's blood glucose levels frequently, observing for signs and symptoms such as shakiness, confusion, sweating, and administering glucose if hypoglycemia occurs. Choice B, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is incorrect as insulin administration typically lowers potassium levels. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not the immediate action needed as the patient could potentially develop hypoglycemia from the excess insulin. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with a potential hypoglycemic event.

4. What lab value should be prioritized for a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Serum albumin levels
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 should be prioritized for a patient with HIV. This value is crucial as it indicates severe immunocompromise in HIV-infected individuals. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count helps assess the status of the immune system and guides treatment decisions. Serum albumin levels (choice B) may reflect the patient's nutritional status and overall health but are not as specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice C) and hemoglobin levels (choice D) can be affected by various factors and are not as directly linked to HIV management as the CD4 T-cell count in this context.

5. What are the dietary recommendations for a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Eat large meals before bedtime
• C. Consume liquids with meals
• D. Avoid NSAIDs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid mint and spicy foods for a patient with GERD. These foods can increase gastric acid secretion and worsen symptoms of GERD. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bedtime can exacerbate GERD symptoms due to increased gastric pressure when lying down. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased gastric distention, potentially triggering GERD symptoms. Choice D, avoiding NSAIDs, though important for some patients with GERD due to their potential to irritate the stomach lining, is not a general dietary recommendation for all GERD patients.

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