what is the priority intervention when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. What is the priority intervention when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This action can help relieve abdominal cramping by slowing the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is not the priority as adjusting the height of the container can often resolve the issue without needing to stop the procedure completely. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may not address the immediate discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, can exacerbate the cramping and should be avoided.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?

A. The dressing was changed 7 days ago
B. The circumference of the client's upper arm has increased by 10%
C. The catheter has not been used in 8 hours
D. The catheter has been flushed with 10 mL of sterile saline after medication use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increase in the circumference of the client's upper arm by 10% could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition. Deep vein thrombosis can impede blood flow and potentially lead to life-threatening complications. Therefore, the nurse should notify the provider immediately about this finding. Choice A is not an immediate concern as PICC dressing changes are usually done every 7 days. Choice C is a normal finding as catheters may not be used for certain periods. Choice D is a correct procedure for maintaining catheter patency after medication use.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is hyperventilating and has the following ABG results: pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, and HCO3- 25 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize that the client has which of the following acid-base imbalances?

A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation. Hyperventilation leads to excessive loss of carbon dioxide, causing a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration and an increase in pH levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by high PaCO2 and low pH. Metabolic acidosis is associated with low HCO3- levels and low pH. Metabolic alkalosis is marked by high HCO3- levels and high pH. In this case, the ABG results indicate respiratory alkalosis.

4. What are the signs and symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke?

A. Sudden severe headache, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures
B. Loss of consciousness and weakness
C. Temporary vision loss
D. Severe chest pain and shortness of breath

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemorrhagic stroke often presents with a sudden severe headache, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures due to bleeding in the brain. Choice B, loss of consciousness and weakness, is more indicative of an ischemic stroke where a clot blocks blood flow to the brain. Choice C, temporary vision loss, is more commonly seen in conditions like transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or retinal migraines. Choice D, severe chest pain and shortness of breath, are symptoms more associated with cardiac issues like a heart attack.

5. What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Serum albumin levels
C. White blood cell count
D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.