ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse at a provider's office is interviewing a client who has multiple sclerosis and has been taking dantrolene for several months. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. I don't have muscle spasms as frequently.
- B. I haven't gotten any colds, even though it is flu season.
- C. I feel like my nerve pain has improved.
- D. It is easier to urinate now.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I don't have muscle spasms as frequently.' Dantrolene is a medication that relaxes skeletal muscles and is commonly prescribed to treat muscle spasms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Therefore, a reduction in muscle spasms frequency would be an indication of the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dantrolene is not indicated for preventing colds, improving nerve pain, or easing urination. The focus should be on the medication's intended purpose, which is to address muscle spasms in clients with multiple sclerosis.
2. What should be the priority action when a patient is admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain IV access
- C. Check cardiac enzymes
- D. Administer aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This is the priority action in treating chest pain associated with acute coronary syndrome as it helps to dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and reduce cardiac tissue damage. Administering nitroglycerin is crucial in managing the symptoms and potential complications of acute coronary syndrome. Obtaining IV access (Choice B) is important for administering medications and fluids but does not address the immediate symptom of chest pain. Checking cardiac enzymes (Choice C) and administering aspirin (Choice D) are essential steps in the management of acute coronary syndrome, but they should follow the administration of nitroglycerin to address the immediate symptom and improve blood flow to the heart.
3. A nurse misreads a glucose reading and administers insulin for a blood glucose of 210 instead of 120. What should the nurse monitor the patient for?
- A. Monitor for hyperglycemia
- B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia
- C. Administer glucose IV
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should monitor the patient for hypoglycemia due to the administration of excess insulin. Administering insulin for a blood glucose level of 210 instead of 120 can lead to a rapid drop in blood sugar levels, causing hypoglycemia. Option A is incorrect as hyperglycemia is high blood sugar, which is unlikely in this scenario. Option C is incorrect as administering glucose IV would worsen the hypoglycemia. Option D is not the immediate priority; patient safety and monitoring for adverse effects take precedence.
4. What intervention is needed when continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Clamp the chest tube
- C. Replace the chest tube
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This action can help resolve an air leak, which is often the cause of continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Clamping the chest tube (choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to a dangerous increase in pressure within the chest. Replacing the chest tube (choice C) is not the initial intervention unless there are other indications to do so. Simply monitoring the chest tube (choice D) without taking corrective action will not address the underlying issue of the air leak causing continuous bubbling.
5. What are the expected symptoms in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
- B. Sudden loss of consciousness
- C. Seizures and convulsions
- D. Severe headache and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' Thrombotic strokes typically result in a gradual onset of symptoms due to a blockage in a blood vessel in the brain, leading to a slow progression of neurological deficits. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, convulsions, severe headache, and vomiting are more commonly associated with other types of strokes or medical conditions, such as hemorrhagic strokes, epilepsy, or migraines.
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