Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse the need for immediate intervention?

• A. Axillary temperature 37.2°C (99°F)
• B. Apical pulse 100/min
• C. Respiratory rate 30/min
• D. Blood pressure 140/84 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should prioritize airway and breathing in a client with a traumatic brain injury. An increased respiratory rate may indicate CO2 retention, which could lead to increased intracranial pressure. Choice A, axillary temperature 37.2°C (99°F), is within normal range and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice B, apical pulse 100/min, is slightly elevated but not as critical as respiratory distress in this scenario. Choice D, blood pressure 140/84 mm Hg, is also within normal limits and does not require immediate intervention compared to the respiratory rate.

2. What dietary recommendations should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• D. Limit potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to effectively remove it from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease as it can lead to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Restricting protein intake is important in later stages of kidney disease, but for pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, protein intake should be individualized based on the patient's condition. Limiting potassium-rich foods is more relevant for patients with advanced kidney disease or those on dialysis, as impaired kidney function can lead to high potassium levels in the blood.

3. A patient with GERD is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Avoid mint and pepper
• B. Increase fluid intake before meals
• C. Eat three large meals per day
• D. Avoid drinking water with meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid foods like mint and pepper, as these can help reduce gastric acid secretion and alleviate symptoms. Mint and pepper are known to relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to increased reflux. Increasing fluid intake before meals (choice B) may worsen GERD symptoms by distending the stomach. Eating three large meals per day (choice C) can also aggravate GERD because large meals can lead to increased gastric pressure and reflux. Avoiding drinking water with meals (choice D) is generally recommended for GERD; however, the most crucial advice in this case is to avoid mint and pepper for better symptom management.

4. What is the first nursing action for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Increase fluids to prevent dehydration
• C. Obtain cardiac enzymes
• D. Get IV access and auscultate heart sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority nursing action for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and reduce cardiac workload. This action aims to relieve chest pain promptly and prevent further cardiac tissue damage. Increasing fluids is not the initial priority for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome. Obtaining cardiac enzymes is important for diagnosis but is not the first action in managing acute symptoms. Getting IV access and auscultating heart sounds are important interventions, but they come after administering sublingual nitroglycerin in the management of acute coronary syndrome.

5. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
• B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
• C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
• D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

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