a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant which of the following information should the nurse include in the te

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Immunosuppressant medications need to be taken for up to 1 year
B. Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection
C. The surgical site will heal in 3 to 4 weeks after surgery
D. Begin 45 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise per day following discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Shortness of breath is an important sign of transplant rejection. Other manifestations of rejection include fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Immunosuppressant medications are typically required for life, not just up to 1 year. C) The surgical site healing time can vary and may take longer than 3 to 4 weeks. D) Starting a specific exercise regimen should be individualized and guided by healthcare providers; a general recommendation like 45 minutes of exercise per day may not be suitable for all heart transplant recipients.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
D. Take the second dose at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

3. What is the correct action when a patient reports cramping during enema administration?

A. Lower the height of the solution container
B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient reports cramping during enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. Lowering the height reduces the pressure and speed of the solution entering the rectum, alleviating cramping. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can worsen the discomfort. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) is not necessary unless there are severe complications. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the immediate cramping issue and could still cause discomfort to the patient.

4. What are the common manifestations of compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, pulselessness
B. Redness and swelling
C. Fever and infection
D. Swelling and redness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestations of compartment syndrome are unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms indicate compromised blood flow and neurovascular compromise, necessitating immediate medical intervention. Redness and swelling (Choice B) are more commonly associated with inflammation or infection rather than compartment syndrome. Fever and infection (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Swelling and redness (Choice D) are general signs that can be seen in various conditions and are not specific to compartment syndrome.

5. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.