the nurse misread a patients glucose as 210 mgdl instead of 120 mgdl and administered the insulin dose for a reading over 200 mgdl what is the priorit
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. The nurse misread a patient's glucose as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL and administered the insulin dose for a reading over 200 mg/dL. What is the priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action is to monitor the patient for signs of hypoglycemia as the nurse administered excess insulin due to misreading the glucose level. Administering glucose IV (Choice A) is not the immediate priority when dealing with hypoglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not the correct action as the insulin was administered for a higher glucose reading. Documenting the incident (Choice D) is important but not the priority when the patient's safety is at risk due to possible hypoglycemia.

2. What is the expected ECG finding in a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in serum potassium levels, which can lead to various ECG changes. One of the classic ECG findings associated with hypokalemia is the presence of flattened T waves. These T wave abnormalities are typically seen in multiple leads. Choice B, elevated ST segments, is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia. Choice C, widened QRS complexes, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Choice D is redundant and not a standard way of describing ECG findings.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.

4. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.

5. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.

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