what lab value should the nurse prioritize in a patient with hiv
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.

2. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak in the system. This occurs when air is entering the system through a leak, preventing the lung from fully re-expanding. Choice B, a blocked chest tube, is incorrect as a blocked tube would result in a lack of drainage rather than continuous bubbling. Choice C, normal chest tube function, is incorrect as continuous bubbling signifies an issue. Choice D, continuous drainage from the chest tube, is incorrect as bubbling in the water seal chamber specifically indicates an air leak, not just the presence of drainage.

3. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for muscle weakness in a patient with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Checking deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Seizures (Choice C) are more commonly associated with low calcium levels rather than low potassium levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is a symptom of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a permanent spinal cord injury and is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it shows that the client has accepted their disability and is looking towards the future with realistic goals. This positive attitude and focus on engaging in activities that are achievable despite the disability indicate effective coping mechanisms. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects denial of the permanent nature of the disability. Choice C is incorrect as it shows feelings of anger and possible self-blame, which are not indicative of effective coping. Choice D is incorrect as it demonstrates a sense of hopelessness and self-perceived burden, which are signs of maladaptive coping.

5. What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with GERD?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. These foods can trigger symptoms of GERD and lead to acid reflux. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bed can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing the likelihood of acid reflux during sleep. Choice C is incorrect as increasing fluid intake during meals can worsen GERD symptoms by distending the stomach, leading to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice D is also incorrect because while milk may provide temporary relief for some individuals, it is not a recommended long-term solution for managing GERD.

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