Nursing Elites

1. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.

2. What intervention is needed when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

• A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
• B. Clamp the chest tube
• C. Replace the chest tube system
• D. Continue monitoring the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the correct intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This can help resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the entire chest tube system are not appropriate interventions in this scenario. Clamping the tube can lead to a dangerous buildup of pressure, while replacing the chest tube system may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by simply tightening the connections. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications associated with the air leak.

3. What are the characteristics of a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual onset over minutes to hours
• B. Numbness on one side of the body
• C. Associated with a loss of consciousness
• D. Associated with seizures and convulsions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thrombotic strokes typically have a gradual onset over minutes to hours as they result from a clot obstructing blood flow. Choice B, numbness on one side of the body, is more commonly associated with an ischemic stroke rather than specifically a thrombotic stroke. Choice C, loss of consciousness, is not a defining characteristic of a thrombotic stroke. Choice D, seizures and convulsions, are more commonly seen in hemorrhagic strokes rather than thrombotic strokes.

4. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

• A. Increased risk of infection
• B. Increased risk of bleeding
• C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
• D. Increased risk of cardiac complications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

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