ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. Hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.
2. A patient who experienced an acute episode of gastritis should avoid which type of foods?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium
- B. Avoid foods high in sodium
- C. Increase exercise
- D. Drink milk as a snack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients who have experienced an acute episode of gastritis should avoid foods high in potassium. Potassium-rich foods can irritate the gastric lining, exacerbating gastritis symptoms. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in sodium is beneficial for other health conditions like hypertension, increasing exercise is generally good for overall health but not specifically for gastritis management, and drinking milk may provide temporary relief for some but is not a definitive recommendation for gastritis management.
3. What are the early signs of hypokalemia on an ECG?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. In hypokalemia, the T waves may flatten and eventually invert. Elevated ST segments are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in conditions like hypokalemia, but they are not considered an early sign. A widened QRS complex is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia.
4. What should be the priority action when a patient is admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain IV access
- C. Check cardiac enzymes
- D. Administer aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This is the priority action in treating chest pain associated with acute coronary syndrome as it helps to dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and reduce cardiac tissue damage. Administering nitroglycerin is crucial in managing the symptoms and potential complications of acute coronary syndrome. Obtaining IV access (Choice B) is important for administering medications and fluids but does not address the immediate symptom of chest pain. Checking cardiac enzymes (Choice C) and administering aspirin (Choice D) are essential steps in the management of acute coronary syndrome, but they should follow the administration of nitroglycerin to address the immediate symptom and improve blood flow to the heart.
5. A client scheduled for electromyography (EMG) will have small needle electrodes inserted into the muscles. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You will receive a fixed dose of radioisotope 2 hours before the procedure.
- B. Momentary flushing will occur at the beginning of the procedure.
- C. You should inform your provider if you are claustrophobic.
- D. You should expect insertion of small needle electrodes into the muscles.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to assess muscle weakness and nerve responses. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because radioisotope is not used in EMG, flushing is not a typical occurrence, and claustrophobia is more relevant for imaging procedures like MRI or CT scans, not EMG.
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