what lab value should the nurse prioritize in a patient with hiv

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. White blood cell count
C. Serum albumin levels
D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A. Teach the client to report findings of IV extravasation
B. Evaluate the patency of the IV
C. Consult with the pharmacist about the prescription
D. Verify the prescription with the provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to verify the prescription with the provider. This is crucial to prevent injury from fluid volume overload and rapid potassium infusion. Verifying the prescription ensures that the correct solution, rate, and additives are ordered according to the client's condition. While evaluating the patency of the IV is important, verifying the prescription takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Consulting with the pharmacist can be beneficial, but confirming the prescription with the provider is the immediate priority. Teaching the client about IV extravasation is important but is not the first action the nurse should take in this scenario.

3. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Your provider will use a stool sample obtained during a digital rectal examination to perform the test.
B. Your provider will recommend a stimulant laxative before the test to empty the bowel.
C. You should start annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at the age of 40.
D. You should avoid corticosteroids before the test.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. This medication can cause your urine to turn a dark color.
B. Expect immediate relief after taking this medication.
C. Take the medication with a high protein food.
D. Skip a dose of the medication if you experience dizziness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching is that carbidopa/levodopa can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this common side effect. Choice B is incorrect because immediate relief is not expected; therapeutic effects may take weeks to months. Choice C is incorrect as carbidopa/levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not skip doses without consulting their healthcare provider, even if they experience dizziness.

5. What are the early signs of compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Localized redness and swelling
C. Fever and infection
D. Loss of sensation in the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These signs are typical early indicators of compartment syndrome, suggesting compromised circulation. Choice B, localized redness and swelling, can be seen in conditions like cellulitis but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Choice C, fever and infection, are not characteristic early signs of compartment syndrome. Choice D, loss of sensation in the affected area, is more indicative of nerve damage rather than being one of the early signs of compartment syndrome.