what is the primary concern in a patient with a low cd4 t cell count in hiv
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

2. What is the first-line treatment for a patient experiencing wheezing and coughing due to an allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction as it quickly opens the airways, providing rapid relief. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a systemic corticosteroid that may be used in severe cases to reduce inflammation but is not the initial treatment for acute wheezing. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer that is more commonly used for prophylaxis rather than acute relief in allergic conditions. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator that is less commonly used now due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity, making it less preferred than Albuterol for initial treatment of wheezing.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible complication of TPN administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pitting edema of bilateral lower extremities. Pitting edema can indicate fluid overload, which is a potential complication of TPN administration. Choice B, hypoactive bowel sounds, is more indicative of a gastrointestinal issue rather than a complication of TPN. Choice C, weight remaining the same, is expected to remain stable with proper TPN administration. Choice D, diminished lung sounds, is not directly related to TPN administration and is more suggestive of a respiratory issue.

4. What are the common manifestations of compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestations of compartment syndrome are unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms indicate compromised blood flow and neurovascular compromise, necessitating immediate medical intervention. Redness and swelling (Choice B) are more commonly associated with inflammation or infection rather than compartment syndrome. Fever and infection (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Swelling and redness (Choice D) are general signs that can be seen in various conditions and are not specific to compartment syndrome.

5. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak in the system. This occurs when air is entering the system through a leak, preventing the lung from fully re-expanding. Choice B, a blocked chest tube, is incorrect as a blocked tube would result in a lack of drainage rather than continuous bubbling. Choice C, normal chest tube function, is incorrect as continuous bubbling signifies an issue. Choice D, continuous drainage from the chest tube, is incorrect as bubbling in the water seal chamber specifically indicates an air leak, not just the presence of drainage.

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