Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?

• A. Encourage a high-protein diet
• B. Increase the client's fluid intake
• C. Administer diuretics
• D. Weigh the client twice a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.

2. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. ST elevation
• D. Wide QRS complexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.

3. What should be monitored for in a patient with compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Localized redness and swelling
• C. Fever and infection
• D. Muscle weakness and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome that indicate inadequate blood flow to the affected area. These symptoms are crucial to monitor as they signify a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling may be present but are not the primary indicators. Fever and infection are also not specific to compartment syndrome, and muscle weakness and fatigue are not typically prominent symptoms of this condition.

4. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
• B. White blood cell count 4,500/mm3
• C. Potassium levels 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin levels below 12g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

5. A patient who experienced an acute episode of gastritis should avoid which type of foods?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium
• B. Avoid foods high in sodium
• C. Increase exercise to reduce stress
• D. Drink milk as a snack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in potassium. Potassium-rich foods can exacerbate gastritis symptoms by irritating the stomach lining. Sodium (choice B) is not directly related to gastritis symptoms. Increasing exercise (choice C) can be beneficial for overall health but may not directly impact gastritis. Drinking milk (choice D) can provide temporary relief for some individuals with gastritis due to its coating effect, but it is not a universal recommendation as it can worsen symptoms in some cases.

Similar Questions