Nursing Elites

1. A client who has burn injuries covering their upper body is concerned about their altered appearance. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. It is okay to not want to touch the burned areas of your body.
• B. Cosmetic surgery should be performed within the next year to be effective.
• C. Reconstructive surgery can completely restore your previous appearance.
• D. It could be helpful for you to attend a support group for people who have burn injuries.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to attend a support group for individuals who have burn injuries. Support groups can provide emotional support, shared experiences, and coping strategies for accepting their altered appearance. Choice A is not the best response as it does not offer proactive support. Choice B is not appropriate as the timing of cosmetic surgery should be determined by healthcare providers, not immediate. Choice C is misleading as reconstructive surgery may improve appearance but may not completely restore the previous look.

2. What is the purpose of an escharotomy?

• A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. To reduce pain in the affected area
• C. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
• D. To prevent infection from spreading

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. This procedure helps prevent complications such as compartment syndrome by releasing the constricting eschar. Choice B is incorrect because while pain relief may be a secondary outcome of the procedure, the primary purpose is to address pressure and circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as an escharotomy specifically focuses on releasing pressure, not removing necrotic tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of an escharotomy is not to prevent infection but rather to address the immediate issues related to deep burn injuries.

3. What should the healthcare provider do first when a patient is admitted with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Get IV access
• C. Auscultate heart sounds
• D. Obtain cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority intervention when a patient presents with chest pain and suspected acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and relieve chest pain. It is crucial to address the pain and potential ischemia promptly to prevent further cardiac tissue damage. Getting IV access, auscultating heart sounds, and obtaining cardiac enzymes are important assessments and interventions, but administering nitroglycerin takes precedence in managing acute coronary syndrome.

4. A nurse is administering insulin to a patient after misreading their glucose as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• B. Monitor for hyperkalemia
• C. Administer glucose IV
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Insulin administration based on a misread glucose level can lead to hypoglycemia due to the unnecessary lowering of blood sugar levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia involves assessing the patient's blood glucose levels frequently, observing for signs and symptoms such as shakiness, confusion, sweating, and administering glucose if hypoglycemia occurs. Choice B, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is incorrect as insulin administration typically lowers potassium levels. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not the immediate action needed as the patient could potentially develop hypoglycemia from the excess insulin. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with a potential hypoglycemic event.

5. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves on the ECG
• B. Elevated ST segments on the ECG
• C. Widened QRS complex
• D. Prominent U waves on the ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.

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