ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Monitor for muscle weakness
- B. Check deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
- C. Monitor for seizures
- D. Monitor for bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for muscle weakness in a patient with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Checking deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Seizures (Choice C) are more commonly associated with low calcium levels rather than low potassium levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is a symptom of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia.
2. A patient with GERD is being taught by a nurse. What should the patient avoid?
- A. Avoid mint and pepper
- B. Increase water intake during meals
- C. Eat frequent small meals
- D. Consume more spicy foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with GERD should avoid mint and spicy foods as they can trigger reflux. Choice B ('Increase water intake during meals') is not recommended for GERD patients as it can worsen symptoms by distending the stomach. Choice C ('Eat frequent small meals') is beneficial for GERD patients to prevent excessive stomach distension. Choice D ('Consume more spicy foods') is incorrect as spicy foods can exacerbate GERD symptoms.
3. How does hyponatremia place the patient at risk?
- A. Seizures
- B. Fatigue
- C. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- D. Muscle weakness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia places the patient at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. While hyponatremia can lead to seizures due to cerebral edema caused by fluid imbalance, the most immediate and life-threatening risk is cardiac dysrhythmias. Low sodium levels can disrupt the heart's electrical activity, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias. Although fatigue and muscle weakness are symptoms of hyponatremia, cardiac dysrhythmias pose the most critical concern as they can have severe consequences.
4. What are the early symptoms of compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized redness and swelling
- C. Fever and swelling
- D. Numbness and tingling
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness.' Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to reduced blood flow and potential tissue damage. Early symptoms include unrelieved pain (out of proportion to the injury), pallor (pale skin color), and pulselessness (decreased or absent pulses). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the classic early symptoms of compartment syndrome.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?
- A. Propofol
- B. Pancuronium
- C. Promethazine
- D. Pentoxifylline
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used for procedures like colonoscopies to induce moderate sedation. Pancuronium (Choice B) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used as a paralyzing agent during surgery, not for sedation. Promethazine (Choice C) is an antihistamine often used for nausea and vomiting, not as an anesthetic. Pentoxifylline (Choice D) is a medication used to improve blood flow and is not indicated for anesthesia.
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