a patient has a chest tube with continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber what does this indicate

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?

A. An air leak
B. A blockage in the chest tube
C. Normal chest tube function
D. Malfunction in the drainage system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the chest tube system. This bubbling occurs when air is escaping through the tube and entering the water seal chamber. Choice B, a blockage in the chest tube, is incorrect as continuous bubbling does not suggest a blockage. Choice C, normal chest tube function, is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not an expected finding in a properly functioning chest tube. Choice D, a malfunction in the drainage system, is incorrect as continuous bubbling specifically points towards an air leak, not a general malfunction.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

A. Diazepam IV
B. Lorazepam PO
C. Diltiazem IV
D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

3. A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?

A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
B. Muscle weakness
C. Seizures
D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.

4. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

A. Increased risk of infection
B. Increased risk of bleeding
C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
D. Increased risk of cardiac complications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

5. What are the dietary recommendations for a patient with GERD?

A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
B. Eat large meals before bedtime
C. Consume liquids with meals
D. Avoid NSAIDs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid mint and spicy foods for a patient with GERD. These foods can increase gastric acid secretion and worsen symptoms of GERD. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bedtime can exacerbate GERD symptoms due to increased gastric pressure when lying down. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased gastric distention, potentially triggering GERD symptoms. Choice D, avoiding NSAIDs, though important for some patients with GERD due to their potential to irritate the stomach lining, is not a general dietary recommendation for all GERD patients.