what is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with hiv
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ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

2. What should be included in teaching for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excessive phosphorus intake can lead to further complications in kidney disease, such as bone and cardiovascular issues. Choice B is incorrect as increasing protein intake can put additional stress on the kidneys due to the buildup of urea and other waste products. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can worsen hypertension and fluid retention, common issues in kidney disease. Choice D is incorrect as limiting sodium intake is generally recommended in kidney disease to manage blood pressure and fluid balance.

3. What is the priority dietary modification for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, restricting phosphorus intake is crucial to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders, which are common in kidney disease. Choice B, increasing potassium intake, is not the priority and can be harmful as kidney disease often leads to hyperkalemia. Choice C, eating three large meals per day, is not recommended as smaller, frequent meals are usually better tolerated. Choice D, restricting protein intake to 1 g/kg/day, is important in later stages of kidney disease but is not the priority at the pre-dialysis stage.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 DM about hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client can correct any development of hypoglycemia with a quick intake of glucose. The client should have 15 g carbohydrates on hand to treat hypoglycemic episodes, like 4 oz of regular soda.

5. What are the common manifestations of a thrombotic stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. A thrombotic stroke is characterized by a gradual onset of symptoms due to interrupted blood flow in the brain. This interruption results in manifestations such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, severe headache, confusion, seizures, and convulsions are more commonly associated with conditions other than thrombotic strokes.

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