Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
• B. White blood cell count 4,500/mm3
• C. Potassium levels 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin levels below 12g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

2. What ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST depression
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Elevated ST segments

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct ECG change associated with hyperkalemia is ST depression. Hyperkalemia typically presents with ECG changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and finally, ST segment depression. Flattened T waves are more commonly associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in hypokalemia as well. Elevated ST segments are not a typical ECG finding in hyperkalemia.

3. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Yogurt
• B. Apples
• C. Raisins
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.

4. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which of the following referrals should the nurse plan to initiate?

• A. Respiratory therapy
• B. Hospice care
• C. Occupational therapy
• D. Dietary services

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dietary services. Referring the client to dietary services is essential for managing nutrition, including monitoring sodium, potassium, and protein intake, which are crucial aspects of managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Respiratory therapy (choice A) focuses on managing respiratory conditions, which are not directly related to CKD. Hospice care (choice B) is not appropriate for a new diagnosis of CKD as it is designed for end-of-life care. Occupational therapy (choice C) is beneficial for improving activities of daily living but is not the priority referral for a new CKD diagnosis.

5. What should the nurse do if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the solution container
• B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
• C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment can help alleviate the cramping by reducing the speed and pressure of the solution entering the colon. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) may be necessary in extreme cases but is not the initial step. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the cramping, making it less optimal than lowering the height of the solution container.

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