ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Increase protein intake
- D. Increase potassium intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications in such patients. Increasing sodium intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. While protein is essential, increasing protein intake (Choice C) in kidney disease can be harmful as it can lead to increased waste products that the kidneys may struggle to excrete. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not advisable as well, as patients with kidney disease may already have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Immunosuppressant medications need to be taken for up to 1 year
- B. Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection
- C. The surgical site will heal in 3 to 4 weeks after surgery
- D. Begin 45 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise per day following discharge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Shortness of breath is an important sign of transplant rejection. Other manifestations of rejection include fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Immunosuppressant medications are typically required for life, not just up to 1 year. C) The surgical site healing time can vary and may take longer than 3 to 4 weeks. D) Starting a specific exercise regimen should be individualized and guided by healthcare providers; a general recommendation like 45 minutes of exercise per day may not be suitable for all heart transplant recipients.
3. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What is the appropriate action?
- A. Lower the height of the solution container
- B. Stop the procedure and remove tubing
- C. Increase the flow of enema solution
- D. Continue the enema at a slower rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lowering the height of the enema solution container is the appropriate action when a patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. This helps reduce the flow rate of the solution, potentially alleviating the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing tubing (Choice B) would be too abrupt and may not address the issue. Increasing the flow of enema solution (Choice C) could exacerbate the cramping by adding more pressure. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) might not provide immediate relief compared to lowering the height of the solution container.
4. What are the manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
- A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
- B. Severe nausea and vomiting
- C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
- D. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) include restlessness, confusion, and irritability. These symptoms are a result of the brain being under pressure inside the skull. Severe nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with increased intracranial pressure in children. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure; instead, hypertension and bradycardia may be seen in Cushing's reflex, which is a late sign of increased IICP. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response (Choice D) are also not primary manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, although altered pupil response, like a non-reactive or dilated pupil, can be seen in some cases.
5. What is an escharotomy and why is it performed?
- A. A surgical incision made to improve circulation in burn injuries
- B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from a wound
- C. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the lungs
- D. A procedure to relieve pain from burns
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure involving an incision through the eschar (dead tissue) to relieve pressure in burn injuries. It is performed to improve circulation to the affected area, prevent further damage, and restore blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily focused on removing dead tissue but rather on relieving pressure. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a procedure related to pulmonary issues, not burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect because while pain relief may be a result of an escharotomy, it is not the primary purpose of the procedure.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access