ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What is the correct action when a patient reports cramping during enema administration?
- A. Lower the height of the solution container
- B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
- C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
- D. Continue the enema at a slower rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient reports cramping during enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. Lowering the height reduces the pressure and speed of the solution entering the rectum, alleviating cramping. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can worsen the discomfort. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) is not necessary unless there are severe complications. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the immediate cramping issue and could still cause discomfort to the patient.
2. A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about caring for clients who have Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Explain procedures clearly and concisely to the client before initiating care
- B. Encourage a client's engagement in appropriate activities to minimize emotional outbursts
- C. Speak calmly and at a moderate volume to a client who is unable to form words or sentences
- D. Provide supervision to prevent a client from becoming injured or lost
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with Alzheimer's disease are at risk of wandering and becoming lost. Providing supervision helps prevent them from getting injured or lost. Choice A is incorrect because extensive details may overwhelm clients with Alzheimer's. Choice B is incorrect because limiting activities can lead to boredom and behavioral issues. Choice C is incorrect because speaking calmly and at a moderate volume helps to reduce agitation and confusion in clients with Alzheimer's.
3. What are the expected ECG findings in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Prominent U waves
- C. Elevated ST segments
- D. Wide QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are the classic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia primarily affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to T wave abnormalities. While prominent U waves are typically associated with hypokalemia as well, flattened T waves are the most specific and sensitive ECG abnormality seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia and are more indicative of other electrolyte imbalances or cardiac conditions.
4. What are the early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
- A. Restlessness, irritability, and confusion
- B. Sudden onset of seizures
- C. Decreased heart rate and pupillary response
- D. Loss of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These signs indicate that the brain is starting to experience pressure, often due to conditions such as trauma, tumors, or hemorrhage. Sudden onset of seizures (choice B) is not typically an early sign of IICP but can occur later as the pressure increases. Decreased heart rate and pupillary response (choice C) are more indicative of late-stage IICP as the brainstem becomes compromised. Loss of consciousness (choice D) is a late sign of IICP when the pressure has significantly increased and is causing significant brain dysfunction.
5. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.
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