Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

• A. Early menopause
• B. History of falls
• C. African American race
• D. Obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at a greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but rather a risk for fractures related to osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, obesity, is considered a protective factor against osteoporosis as excess weight can provide additional support to bones.

2. A patient who experienced an acute episode of gastritis should avoid which type of foods?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium
• B. Avoid foods high in sodium
• C. Increase exercise to reduce stress
• D. Drink milk as a snack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in potassium. Potassium-rich foods can exacerbate gastritis symptoms by irritating the stomach lining. Sodium (choice B) is not directly related to gastritis symptoms. Increasing exercise (choice C) can be beneficial for overall health but may not directly impact gastritis. Drinking milk (choice D) can provide temporary relief for some individuals with gastritis due to its coating effect, but it is not a universal recommendation as it can worsen symptoms in some cases.

3. What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Hemoglobin levels
• D. Serum albumin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.

4. A nurse is planning care for a patient diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. What should be included in the care plan?

• A. Monitor serum albumin levels
• B. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• C. Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake
• D. Teach the patient to avoid alcohol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum albumin levels. In patients with diabetes insipidus, monitoring serum albumin levels is essential to assess for dehydration and nutritional deficits. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Restricting protein intake, encouraging fluid intake, and teaching the patient to avoid alcohol are interventions that may be relevant for other medical conditions but are not specific to addressing the needs of a patient with diabetes insipidus.

5. What ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST depression
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Elevated ST segments

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct ECG change associated with hyperkalemia is ST depression. Hyperkalemia typically presents with ECG changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and finally, ST segment depression. Flattened T waves are more commonly associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in hypokalemia as well. Elevated ST segments are not a typical ECG finding in hyperkalemia.

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