Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

• A. Early menopause
• B. History of falls
• C. African American race
• D. Obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at a greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but rather a risk for fractures related to osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, obesity, is considered a protective factor against osteoporosis as excess weight can provide additional support to bones.

2. What is the first medication to give to a patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
• C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction due to its rapid action in opening airways. Cromolyn (Choice B) is used for prevention rather than acute treatment. Methylprednisolone (Choice C) and Aminophylline (Choice D) are not the first-line treatments for acute wheezing in allergic reactions.

3. What is the primary nursing action for a patient experiencing continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber?

• A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
• B. Clamp the chest tube
• C. Continue monitoring the chest tube
• D. Replace the chest tube system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. Continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber indicates an air leak. By tightening the connections of the chest tube system, the nurse can often resolve the issue by ensuring there are no loose connections allowing air to enter. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the chest tube system are not appropriate actions in this situation. Clamping the tube can cause a dangerous buildup of pressure, while replacing the system should only be considered if tightening the connections does not resolve the air leak.

4. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Monitor for anemia
• C. Monitor for dehydration
• D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

5. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Widened QRS complexes
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.

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