Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

• A. Early menopause
• B. History of falls
• C. African American race
• D. Obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at a greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but rather a risk for fractures related to osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, obesity, is considered a protective factor against osteoporosis as excess weight can provide additional support to bones.

2. When caring for a patient with a burn injury, what is the priority intervention?

• A. Monitor the burn area for infection
• B. Administer IV fluids
• C. Debride the burn area
• D. Apply a dry dressing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention when caring for a patient with a burn injury is to monitor the burn area for infection. This is crucial to prevent further complications such as sepsis. While administering IV fluids is important for fluid resuscitation, it is not the top priority compared to preventing infection. Debriding the burn area and applying a dry dressing are necessary interventions for wound care, but ensuring there is no infection takes precedence to avoid sepsis and other serious complications.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?

• A. Encourage a high-protein diet
• B. Increase the client's fluid intake
• C. Administer diuretics
• D. Weigh the client twice a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.

4. A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. Distended, board-like abdomen
• B. WBC count of 15,000/mm3
• C. Rebound tenderness over McBurney's point
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen should be reported to the provider immediately because it indicates peritonitis, a serious complication of appendicitis resulting from a ruptured appendix. Option B, an elevated WBC count, may indicate infection but is not as urgent as a board-like abdomen. Option C, rebound tenderness over McBurney's point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate immediate life-threatening complications. Option D, a slightly elevated temperature, is not as concerning as a distended, board-like abdomen.

5. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. ST elevation
• D. Wide QRS complexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.

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