a nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for os
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at a greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but rather a risk for fractures related to osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, obesity, is considered a protective factor against osteoporosis as excess weight can provide additional support to bones.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

3. A client has a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA). What should the nurse teach?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime. For a client with a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA), it is crucial to avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime to reduce reflux that can worsen symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because consuming liquids between meals is not specifically related to managing TIA. Choice C is incorrect as eating large meals may not be recommended, especially if the client needs to watch their caloric intake. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding liquids entirely can lead to dehydration and is not a standard recommendation for TIA management.

4. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

5. What should be done when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate action is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This may resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Option B, replacing the chest tube system, is not the initial step to take and is considered more invasive. Clamping the chest tube (option C) can lead to complications and should not be done unless instructed by a healthcare provider. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (option D) without taking any corrective action may delay necessary interventions.

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