which lab value is a priority for a patient with hiv

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

2. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What action should the nurse take to relieve the discomfort?

A. Lower the height of the solution container
B. Increase the flow of enema solution
C. Remove the enema tubing
D. Stop the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to relieve abdominal cramping after enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment slows down the flow rate of the enema solution, which can help reduce discomfort by decreasing the pressure on the patient's abdomen. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) would exacerbate the cramping by introducing more solution quickly. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) is not necessary to address the cramping, and stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not be needed if adjusting the height of the solution container can resolve the issue.

3. What is the first-line treatment for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

A. Albuterol via nebulizer
B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction because it acts quickly to open the airways by relaxing the muscles in the air passages. Cromolyn (Choice B) is used for asthma prevention rather than acute wheezing. Methylprednisolone (Choice C) and Aminophylline (Choice D) are not the first-line treatments for acute wheezing in the setting of an allergic reaction.

4. When caring for a patient with hypokalemia, what should the nurse monitor for?

A. Monitor for muscle weakness
B. Check for cardiac dysrhythmias
C. Monitor for bradycardia
D. Monitor for seizures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Answer: Muscle weakness is a common sign of hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for muscle weakness as potassium plays a crucial role in muscle function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, bradycardia, and even seizures in severe cases, muscle weakness is a more common and specific sign directly related to potassium levels.

5. What is the preferred treatment for a patient with unstable angina admitted with chest pain?

A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Establish IV access
C. Auscultate heart sounds
D. Obtain cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart, relieving chest pain, and preventing cardiac tissue damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) is important but not the preferred initial treatment for unstable angina with chest pain. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice D) are relevant assessments but do not address the immediate symptomatic relief needed for a patient with unstable angina and chest pain.