a nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis which of the following diets should the nurse recommend
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low fat diet. A low-fat diet is recommended for clients with chronic cholecystitis to reduce episodes of biliary colic. High-fat foods can trigger symptoms by causing the gallbladder to contract, leading to pain. Choice A, a low potassium diet, is not specifically indicated for chronic cholecystitis. Choice B, a high fiber diet, though generally healthy, may worsen symptoms in some individuals with cholecystitis due to the increased intestinal gas production. Choice D, a low sodium diet, is not directly related to the management of chronic cholecystitis.

2. What intervention is needed when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the correct intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This can help resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the entire chest tube system are not appropriate interventions in this scenario. Clamping the tube can lead to a dangerous buildup of pressure, while replacing the chest tube system may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by simply tightening the connections. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications associated with the air leak.

3. What lab value should be prioritized for a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 should be prioritized for a patient with HIV. This value is crucial as it indicates severe immunocompromise in HIV-infected individuals. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count helps assess the status of the immune system and guides treatment decisions. Serum albumin levels (choice B) may reflect the patient's nutritional status and overall health but are not as specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice C) and hemoglobin levels (choice D) can be affected by various factors and are not as directly linked to HIV management as the CD4 T-cell count in this context.

4. A patient with hypokalemia is being monitored. What should the nurse assess for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A patient with hypokalemia is being monitored. What should the nurse assess for? Corrected Choice A: Muscle weakness Corrected Choice B: Flattened T waves Corrected Choice C: Checking deep tendon reflexes Corrected Choice D: Seizures Rationale: Hypokalemia is associated with muscle weakness due to the effect of low potassium levels on muscle function. Flattened T waves on an ECG are characteristic of hypokalemia but are not a direct assessment for the patient's condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes and seizures are not primary symptoms associated with hypokalemia, making them less relevant for monitoring a patient with this electrolyte imbalance.

5. What is the first medication to give to a patient with an allergic reaction causing wheezing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is a fast-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by relaxing the muscles in the airways, making it the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by bronchospasms in allergic reactions. Methylprednisolone (Choice B) is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory properties and is typically given after bronchodilators. Cromolyn (Choice C) is a mast cell stabilizer that is used for the prevention of asthma symptoms, not for immediate relief. Aminophylline (Choice D) is a bronchodilator that is less commonly used nowadays due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity.

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