ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a permanent spinal cord injury and is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?
- A. I would like to play wheelchair basketball. When I get stronger, I think I'll look for a league.
- B. I'm glad I'll only be in this wheelchair temporarily. I can't wait to get back to running.
- C. I'm so upset that this happened to me. What did I do to deserve this?
- D. I feel like I'll never be able to do anything that I want to again. All I am is a burden to my family.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it shows that the client has accepted their disability and is looking towards the future with realistic goals. This positive attitude and focus on engaging in activities that are achievable despite the disability indicate effective coping mechanisms. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects denial of the permanent nature of the disability. Choice C is incorrect as it shows feelings of anger and possible self-blame, which are not indicative of effective coping. Choice D is incorrect as it demonstrates a sense of hopelessness and self-perceived burden, which are signs of maladaptive coping.
2. What should a healthcare professional monitor in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor for respiratory distress
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness
- D. Monitor for hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia. Insulin can lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia, which can be harmful if not promptly recognized and managed. Checking blood glucose levels allows for early detection of low blood sugar levels, enabling timely interventions to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to monitoring for hypoglycemia in patients receiving insulin.
3. A patient who received an enema reports abdominal cramping. What should the nurse do?
- A. Increase the flow of the enema solution
- B. Lower the height of the enema solution container
- C. Remove the enema tubing
- D. Stop the procedure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient who received an enema reports abdominal cramping, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment can help reduce the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution into the colon, allowing the patient to tolerate the procedure better. Increasing the flow of the solution (Choice A) can exacerbate the cramping. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) or stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not address the issue and could lead to incomplete treatment.
4. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
- B. Monitor the client's skin under the halo vest
- C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
- D. Apply powder to the client's skin under the vest to decrease itching
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because while inspecting the pin site is important, it should be done more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as the halo device should be supported by the client's body weight, not personnel, when repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.
5. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Prominent U waves
- C. Elevated ST segments
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.
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