a nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen should be reported to the provider immediately because it indicates peritonitis, a serious complication of appendicitis resulting from a ruptured appendix. Option B, an elevated WBC count, may indicate infection but is not as urgent as a board-like abdomen. Option C, rebound tenderness over McBurney's point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate immediate life-threatening complications. Option D, a slightly elevated temperature, is not as concerning as a distended, board-like abdomen.

2. What is the priority nursing action when a patient with chest pain presents with possible acute coronary syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action when a patient with chest pain presents with possible acute coronary syndrome is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Sublingual nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reducing cardiac workload, and improving blood supply to the heart muscle, thus relieving pain and enhancing blood flow to the heart. While obtaining IV access is important for administering medications and fluids, it is not the priority over addressing pain and improving blood flow. Checking the patient's cardiac enzymes is crucial for diagnosis and ongoing management but not the immediate priority when the patient is in pain. Administering aspirin is also a vital intervention in acute coronary syndrome, but in this scenario, it is not the priority action compared to providing immediate pain relief and enhancing blood flow to the heart.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

4. What are the expected ECG changes in hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

5. What is a typical symptom of a hemorrhagic stroke in a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A sudden, severe headache is a common symptom of a hemorrhagic stroke due to brain bleeding. This headache is often described as the worst headache of one's life. Gradual onset of numbness (choice B) is more characteristic of an ischemic stroke, where a blood clot blocks an artery in the brain. Loss of consciousness (choice C) can occur in severe cases of stroke but is not specific to hemorrhagic strokes. Loss of speech ability (choice D) is more associated with ischemic strokes affecting language centers of the brain.

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