a nurse is caring for a patient with an allergic reaction experiencing wheezing which medication should be given first

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. A patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction needs immediate treatment. Which medication should be administered first?

A. Albuterol via nebulizer
B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
C. Aminophylline IV
D. Methylprednisolone IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is a rapid-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by opening up the airways. During an allergic reaction causing wheezing, prompt relief is crucial, making Albuterol the first-line treatment. Choice B, Cromolyn via nebulizer, is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than providing immediate relief. Choice C, Aminophylline IV, is a bronchodilator with a slower onset of action compared to Albuterol. Choice D, Methylprednisolone IV, is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and is not the first-line treatment for acute wheezing in an allergic reaction.

2. What dietary changes should be implemented for a patient with GERD?

A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
B. Eat large meals before bedtime
C. Consume liquids with meals
D. Drink milk as a snack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid mint and spicy foods. Patients with GERD should avoid mint and spicy foods because they can increase gastric acid production, exacerbating symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bedtime can worsen GERD symptoms due to lying down with a full stomach. Choice C is incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, promoting acid reflux. Choice D is also incorrect as drinking milk as a snack is not recommended for GERD patients, as it may temporarily soothe symptoms but can ultimately stimulate acid production.

3. What is the appropriate electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?

A. Defibrillation
B. Synchronized cardioversion
C. Pacing
D. Medication administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the correct electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse. This procedure delivers a synchronized electrical shock to the heart during a specific phase of the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore the heart's normal rhythm. Defibrillation (choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (choice C) is typically used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (choice D) may be used in some cases, but in the scenario of ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred intervention.

4. What are the expected ECG changes in hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. ST elevation
C. Wide QRS complex
D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

5. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Prominent U waves
C. ST elevation
D. Wide QRS complexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.