what is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention. Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat unstable tachyarrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. Choice B, defibrillation, is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Choice C, medication administration, may not provide immediate correction for unstable ventricular tachycardia. Choice D, pacing, is not the first-line treatment for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 DM about hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client can correct any development of hypoglycemia with a quick intake of glucose. The client should have 15 g carbohydrates on hand to treat hypoglycemic episodes, like 4 oz of regular soda.

3. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. In this scenario, the heart still has an organized rhythm, so synchronized cardioversion is used to deliver a shock at a specific point in the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore a normal rhythm. Defibrillation (Choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (Choice C) may be used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (Choice D) can be considered for stable ventricular tachycardia, but synchronized cardioversion is the primary intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.

4. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible complication of TPN administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pitting edema of bilateral lower extremities. Pitting edema can indicate fluid overload, which is a potential complication of TPN administration. Choice B, hypoactive bowel sounds, is more indicative of a gastrointestinal issue rather than a complication of TPN. Choice C, weight remaining the same, is expected to remain stable with proper TPN administration. Choice D, diminished lung sounds, is not directly related to TPN administration and is more suggestive of a respiratory issue.

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