what is the priority action when the nurse administers insulin for a misread blood glucose reading

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What is the priority action when the nurse administers insulin for a misread blood glucose reading?

A. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia
B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
C. Administer glucose IV
D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action when the nurse administers insulin for a misread blood glucose reading is to monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. Insulin administration based on a misread blood glucose could lead to hypoglycemia due to an unnecessary dose. Monitoring for signs of hypoglycemia is crucial for prompt intervention if blood glucose levels drop dangerously low. Option B, monitoring for hyperglycemia, is incorrect in this situation as the concern is over-treatment with insulin causing hypoglycemia. Option C, administering glucose IV, is only necessary if hypoglycemia occurs. Option D, documenting the incident, is important for reporting and learning purposes but is not the immediate priority when the focus is on patient safety and preventing complications.

2. What are the expected symptoms of a thrombotic stroke?

A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
B. Sudden loss of consciousness
C. Severe headache and confusion
D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' In a thrombotic stroke, a clot blocks a cerebral artery, leading to a gradual onset of symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choice B, 'Sudden loss of consciousness,' is more characteristic of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice C, 'Severe headache and confusion,' are often associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than thrombotic stroke. Choice D, 'Loss of sensation in the affected limb,' is not a typical symptom pattern for a thrombotic stroke, which usually presents with motor deficits.

3. What is the correct action when a patient reports cramping during enema administration?

A. Lower the height of the solution container
B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient reports cramping during enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. Lowering the height reduces the pressure and speed of the solution entering the rectum, alleviating cramping. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can worsen the discomfort. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) is not necessary unless there are severe complications. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the immediate cramping issue and could still cause discomfort to the patient.

4. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Your provider will use a stool sample obtained during a digital rectal examination to perform the test.
B. Your provider will recommend a stimulant laxative before the test to empty the bowel.
C. You should start annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at the age of 40.
D. You should avoid corticosteroids before the test.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.

5. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Hemoglobin levels
C. Serum albumin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.