Nursing Elites

1. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

2. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

3. What dietary recommendations should be provided to a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Eat large meals before bed
• C. Consume liquids with meals
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. These types of foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as eating large meals before bed can increase the likelihood of acid reflux due to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can cause distension in the stomach, potentially leading to reflux. Choice D is not directly related to GERD, as foods high in potassium are generally healthy and not specifically problematic for GERD patients.

4. What is the purpose of an escharotomy in burn management?

• A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
• C. To prevent infection in burn injuries
• D. To remove excess fluid from burn wounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure in areas affected by deep burns and improve circulation. This procedure involves making incisions through the eschar (burned and dead tissue) to release constricting tissue and allow for the return of blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of necrotic tissue is typically done through debridement, not escharotomy. Choice C is incorrect because preventing infection in burn injuries is usually achieved through proper wound care and antibiotic therapy, not escharotomy. Choice D is incorrect because removing excess fluid from burn wounds is managed through methods like fluid resuscitation and monitoring, not escharotomy.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?

• A. Encourage a high-protein diet
• B. Increase the client's fluid intake
• C. Administer diuretics
• D. Weigh the client twice a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.

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