what should a nurse monitor for in a patient with hiv and a cd4 t cell count below 180 cellsmm3
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who was newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nephrotic syndrome leads to edema, especially of the face and dependent areas, due to the loss of protein in the urine. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as using a soft bristle toothbrush is not directly related to the manifestations of nephrotic syndrome.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate to prevent transmission of the disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets measuring less than 5 microns, which can remain airborne for extended periods. The nurse should place a client who has TB under airborne precautions to prevent the spread of microbes. Choice A, contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for diseases spread by larger droplets. Choice D, protective environment, is used for immunocompromised clients to protect them from environmental pathogens.

4. A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.

5. What action should a healthcare provider take if a patient reports cramping during enema administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient reports cramping during enema administration, the best action is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment helps relieve abdominal cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow of the solution (choice B) would exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (choice C) may be necessary in some cases but should not be the first response to cramping. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (choice D) might not be as effective as lowering the height of the solution container in addressing the cramping.

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