Nursing Elites

1. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Monitor for anemia
• C. Monitor for dehydration
• D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Positive Chvostek's sign
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. Dry mucous membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected deep tendon reflexes occur with hyponatremia. Other manifestations of hyponatremia include headache, confusion, lethargy, fatigue, seizures, and muscle weakness. Positive Chvostek's sign is associated with hypocalcemia, hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically related to hyponatremia, and dry mucous membranes are more commonly seen with dehydration.

3. A nurse misreads a blood glucose level and administers excess insulin. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for hyperglycemia
• B. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• C. Administer glucose IV
• D. Monitor for increased thirst

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Excess insulin can lead to low blood glucose levels, causing hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include sweating, trembling, dizziness, confusion, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because administering excess insulin would not lead to hyperglycemia or increased thirst, and administering glucose IV would exacerbate the issue by further lowering blood glucose levels.

4. When caring for a patient with a burn injury, what is the priority intervention?

• A. Monitor the burn area for infection
• B. Administer IV fluids
• C. Debride the burn area
• D. Apply a dry dressing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention when caring for a patient with a burn injury is to monitor the burn area for infection. This is crucial to prevent further complications such as sepsis. While administering IV fluids is important for fluid resuscitation, it is not the top priority compared to preventing infection. Debriding the burn area and applying a dry dressing are necessary interventions for wound care, but ensuring there is no infection takes precedence to avoid sepsis and other serious complications.

5. What should be done when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

• A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
• B. Replace the chest tube system
• C. Clamp the chest tube
• D. Continue to monitor the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate action is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This may resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Option B, replacing the chest tube system, is not the initial step to take and is considered more invasive. Clamping the chest tube (option C) can lead to complications and should not be done unless instructed by a healthcare provider. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (option D) without taking any corrective action may delay necessary interventions.

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