Nursing Elites

1. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Monitor for anemia
• C. Monitor for dehydration
• D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

2. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

• A. Early menopause
• B. History of falls
• C. African American race
• D. Obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at a greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but rather a risk for fractures related to osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, obesity, is considered a protective factor against osteoporosis as excess weight can provide additional support to bones.

3. What is the priority dietary modification for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day
• C. Eat three large meals per day
• D. Restrict protein intake to 1 g/kg/day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, restricting phosphorus intake is crucial to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders, which are common in kidney disease. Choice B, increasing potassium intake, is not the priority and can be harmful as kidney disease often leads to hyperkalemia. Choice C, eating three large meals per day, is not recommended as smaller, frequent meals are usually better tolerated. Choice D, restricting protein intake to 1 g/kg/day, is important in later stages of kidney disease but is not the priority at the pre-dialysis stage.

4. A nurse in a rural community center is providing education to a group of clients about first aid interventions for snake bites. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Apply an ice pack directly to the affected area
• B. Immobilize the affected extremity with a splint
• C. Place a tourniquet above and below the affected area
• D. Elevate the affected extremity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to immobilize the affected extremity with a splint. This helps to slow the spread of venom by limiting movement. Applying an ice pack directly to the affected area (Choice A) is not recommended for snake bites as it could exacerbate tissue damage. Placing a tourniquet above and below the affected area (Choice C) is also not advised as it can lead to further complications. Elevating the affected extremity (Choice D) is not recommended for snake bites; keeping it below the level of the heart is more appropriate to reduce venom spread.

5. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

Similar Questions