what should a nurse monitor for in a patient with hiv and a cd4 t cell count below 180 cellsmm3

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

A. Monitor for signs of infection
B. Monitor for anemia
C. Monitor for dehydration
D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

2. What is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina?

A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Establish IV access
C. Auscultate heart sounds
D. Administer aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina as it helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, relieve chest pain, and prevent further cardiac damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) may be important but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin in this scenario. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and administering aspirin (choice D) are also important aspects of managing unstable angina, but they are not the immediate priority intervention when a patient is experiencing chest pain.

3. What is the priority intervention when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This action can help relieve abdominal cramping by slowing the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is not the priority as adjusting the height of the container can often resolve the issue without needing to stop the procedure completely. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may not address the immediate discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, can exacerbate the cramping and should be avoided.

4. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?

A. Yogurt
B. Apples
C. Raisins
D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.

5. What symptoms are expected in a patient with compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Localized swelling and numbness
C. Fever and infection
D. Weakness and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the key symptoms include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms indicate reduced circulation in the affected compartment. Choice B is incorrect as localized swelling and numbness are not typically associated with compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as fever and infection are not primary symptoms of compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as weakness and fatigue are not typically seen in compartment syndrome.