ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- D. Eat three large meals per day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.
2. What should be done if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?
- A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
- B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
- C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
- D. Increase the flow of the enema solution
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the appropriate action is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment helps alleviate the cramping by reducing the pressure of the solution entering the colon. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice B) is not necessary unless there are other complications. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice C) may not address the immediate discomfort caused by cramping. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice D) can exacerbate the cramping and should be avoided.
3. What are the adverse effects of radiation after a mastectomy?
- A. S3 heart sound, fatigue
- B. Pulselessness in the affected extremity
- C. SOB and JVD
- D. Localized pain, swelling, erythema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 heart sound, fatigue. Radiation after a mastectomy can lead to fatigue and symptoms of heart failure, such as the presence of an S3 heart sound. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Pulselessness in the affected extremity would be more relevant to vascular complications, shortness of breath (SOB) and jugular venous distention (JVD) could indicate cardiac or respiratory issues unrelated to radiation, and localized pain, swelling, and erythema are more characteristic of a local inflammatory response rather than the systemic effects of radiation post-mastectomy.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig's sign?
- A. After stroking the lateral area of the foot, the client's toes contract and draw together
- B. After hip flexion, the client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain
- C. The client's voluntary movement is not coordinated
- D. The client reports pain and stiffness when flexing their neck
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A positive Kernig's sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding suggests meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig's sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, Choice C refers to coordination deficits, and Choice D indicates neck pain and stiffness, which are not related to Kernig's sign.
5. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Serum albumin levels
- C. Hemoglobin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.
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