ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase protein intake to 1.5 g/kg/day
- C. Restrict sodium intake to 1 g/day
- D. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excess phosphorus can lead to complications such as bone and heart issues in these patients. Increasing protein intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended as it can lead to increased waste production that the kidneys may struggle to eliminate. Restricting sodium intake (Choice C) is important for managing blood pressure, but the recommendation is usually higher than 1 g/day. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not typically advised in patients with kidney disease, as they often need to limit potassium due to impaired kidney function.
2. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection
- B. Monitor for anemia
- C. Monitor for dehydration
- D. Monitor for bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.
3. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with GERD?
- A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
- B. Eat large meals before bedtime
- C. Consume liquids with meals
- D. Eat three large meals per day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. Mint and spicy foods can aggravate GERD symptoms by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter and increasing stomach acid production, leading to acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating large meals before bedtime can worsen GERD symptoms as lying down can promote acid reflux. Consuming liquids with meals can also exacerbate GERD by increasing stomach distension and pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Eating three large meals per day can overload the stomach and trigger acid reflux episodes in patients with GERD.
4. A patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction needs immediate treatment. Which medication should be administered first?
- A. Albuterol via nebulizer
- B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
- C. Aminophylline IV
- D. Methylprednisolone IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is a rapid-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by opening up the airways. During an allergic reaction causing wheezing, prompt relief is crucial, making Albuterol the first-line treatment. Choice B, Cromolyn via nebulizer, is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than providing immediate relief. Choice C, Aminophylline IV, is a bronchodilator with a slower onset of action compared to Albuterol. Choice D, Methylprednisolone IV, is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and is not the first-line treatment for acute wheezing in an allergic reaction.
5. What are the expected ECG changes in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST elevation
- C. Wide QRS complex
- D. Tall T waves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
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