ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What is the preferred treatment for a patient with unstable angina admitted with chest pain?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Establish IV access
- C. Auscultate heart sounds
- D. Obtain cardiac enzymes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart, relieving chest pain, and preventing cardiac tissue damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) is important but not the preferred initial treatment for unstable angina with chest pain. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice D) are relevant assessments but do not address the immediate symptomatic relief needed for a patient with unstable angina and chest pain.
2. What are the expected signs in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Fever and infection
- C. Localized redness and swelling
- D. Loss of sensation in the affected area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the classic signs include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These signs indicate compromised circulation and neurovascular function in the affected compartment. Fever and infection (Choice B) are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling (Choice C) can be seen in other conditions like cellulitis but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Loss of sensation in the affected area (Choice D) may occur in some cases but is not as specific or consistent as unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness in diagnosing compartment syndrome.
3. A client has a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA). What should the nurse teach?
- A. Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime
- B. Consume liquids between meals
- C. Eat large meals to increase caloric intake
- D. Avoid liquids to prevent aspiration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime. For a client with a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA), it is crucial to avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime to reduce reflux that can worsen symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because consuming liquids between meals is not specifically related to managing TIA. Choice C is incorrect as eating large meals may not be recommended, especially if the client needs to watch their caloric intake. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding liquids entirely can lead to dehydration and is not a standard recommendation for TIA management.
4. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- D. Eat three large meals per day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.
5. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
- B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
- C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
- D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.
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