what are the expected changes on an ecg for a patient with hypokalemia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.

2. What is the most likely cause of continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube usually indicates an air leak. An air leak can disrupt the negative pressure required for the chest tube to function properly, leading to inadequate drainage and potential complications. A blockage in the chest tube would typically result in decreased or absent drainage rather than continuous bubbling. Normal chest tube function does not involve continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Drainage from the chest tube may lead to fluid moving into the drainage system, but it would not cause continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.

3. What dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus intake can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys may not be able to excrete it efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease, as it can contribute to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is commonly advised for individuals with advanced kidney disease to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing protein intake can further burden the kidneys.

4. What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.

5. What is the first medication to give to a patient with an allergic reaction causing wheezing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is a fast-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by relaxing the muscles in the airways, making it the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by bronchospasms in allergic reactions. Methylprednisolone (Choice B) is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory properties and is typically given after bronchodilators. Cromolyn (Choice C) is a mast cell stabilizer that is used for the prevention of asthma symptoms, not for immediate relief. Aminophylline (Choice D) is a bronchodilator that is less commonly used nowadays due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity.

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