Nursing Elites

1. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. ST elevation
• D. Wide QRS complexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.

2. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Monitor for anemia
• C. Monitor for dehydration
• D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

3. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Serum albumin levels
• C. Hemoglobin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

4. What dietary changes should a patient with GERD make to manage their symptoms?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Eat large, frequent meals
• C. Consume liquids with meals
• D. Eat small, frequent meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid mint and spicy foods. Patients with GERD should avoid foods like mint and spicy dishes as they can trigger symptoms by increasing gastric acid secretion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating large, frequent meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting more pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased reflux, and eating small, frequent meals is the recommended approach to reduce symptoms and manage GERD.

5. What are the dietary instructions for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Increase protein intake
• B. Reduce sodium intake
• C. Reduce potassium intake
• D. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excessive protein intake can worsen kidney function in such patients. Increasing protein intake, as mentioned in choice A, is not recommended due to the strain it puts on the kidneys. While reducing sodium intake, as in choice B, is relevant for managing blood pressure, it is not specifically related to pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Choice C, reducing potassium intake, is important for patients with kidney disease, but it is not the primary dietary instruction for those with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease.

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