ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Prominent U waves
- C. ST elevation
- D. Wide QRS complexes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.
2. What should a healthcare professional monitor for in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized redness and swelling
- C. Fever and signs of infection
- D. Loss of deep tendon reflexes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome. In this condition, increased pressure within a muscle compartment impairs blood flow, leading to severe pain that is not relieved by usual measures, pallor from decreased blood flow, and pulselessness due to compromised circulation. These signs indicate a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Localized redness and swelling (Choice B) are more characteristic of inflammation or infection rather than compartment syndrome. Fever and signs of infection (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Loss of deep tendon reflexes (Choice D) is associated with conditions affecting the nervous system, not compartment syndrome.
3. What are the manifestations of osteomyelitis?
- A. Localized pain, swelling, erythema
- B. Elevated white blood cells
- C. Elevated calcium levels
- D. Low potassium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Osteomyelitis often manifests as localized pain, swelling, and erythema due to infection in the bone. These symptoms are characteristic of inflammation and infection in the bone tissue. Elevated white blood cells (Choice B) may be present as part of the body's immune response to the infection but are not specific manifestations of osteomyelitis. Elevated calcium levels (Choice C) and low potassium levels (Choice D) are not typically associated with osteomyelitis.
4. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. Hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.
5. If a nurse misread a glucose reading as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL and administered insulin, what should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
- B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
- C. Administer glucose IV
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. In this scenario, the nurse administered insulin based on an incorrect glucose reading, which could lead to a drop in blood sugar levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia is crucial to prevent any adverse effects on the patient's health. Choice B, monitoring for hyperglycemia, is incorrect as the administration of insulin can lead to low blood sugar levels, not high. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not the immediate action needed as monitoring for hypoglycemia comes first. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the initial priority when patient safety is at risk.
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