Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?

• A. Stomatitis
• B. Fatigue
• C. Wasting syndrome
• D. Lipodystrophy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Fatigue.' Early manifestations of HIV infection often include symptoms like fatigue, fever, and rash, which are typical of viral infections. Stomatitis (choice A) refers to inflammation of the mouth and lips, which can occur in HIV but is not specific to early infection. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection rather than early manifestations.

2. What is the first medication to give to a patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
• C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction due to its rapid action in opening airways. Cromolyn (Choice B) is used for prevention rather than acute treatment. Methylprednisolone (Choice C) and Aminophylline (Choice D) are not the first-line treatments for acute wheezing in allergic reactions.

3. After a healthcare provider misreads a glucose level and administers insulin, what is the priority intervention?

• A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• B. Administer glucose IV
• C. Document the incident
• D. Monitor for hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Administering insulin based on a misread glucose level can lead to hypoglycemia. Monitoring for hypoglycemia is crucial as it is a potential adverse effect of the insulin administration. Administering glucose IV (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of hypoglycemia yet. Documenting the incident (Choice C) is important but not the immediate priority over patient safety. Monitoring for hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not the priority after administering insulin in response to a misread glucose level.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat three large meals daily
• B. Consume high-calorie foods
• C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
• D. Drink fluids during meal time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach putting pressure on the diaphragm. Choice C is incorrect because caffeinated drinks can contribute to dehydration, which is not ideal for clients with COPD. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can cause bloating and early satiety, making it difficult for clients to consume enough calories.

5. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Widened QRS complexes
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.

Similar Questions