Nursing Elites

1. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

2. A patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse needs electrical intervention. What is the appropriate action?

• A. Defibrillation
• B. Synchronized cardioversion
• C. Pacing
• D. Medication administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, the appropriate action is synchronized cardioversion. Defibrillation is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing is typically used for bradycardias. Medication administration may be considered in stable ventricular tachycardia cases but electrical intervention is preferred for immediate correction in this scenario.

3. What should be the first medication given for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
• C. Methylprednisolone IV
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line medication for treating wheezing caused by an allergic reaction as it works as a bronchodilator, helping to relieve the symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath quickly. Cromolyn (choice B) is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than for immediate relief. Methylprednisolone IV (choice C) and Aminophylline 500 mg IV (choice D) are not the first-line treatments for wheezing due to an allergic reaction.

4. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Monitor for anemia
• C. Monitor for dehydration
• D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

5. What are the expected signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

• A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
• B. Severe headache and confusion
• C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
• D. Bradycardia and altered pupil response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restlessness, confusion, irritability. These are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) and require prompt intervention. Restlessness, confusion, and irritability are indicative of the brain's attempt to compensate for the rising pressure. Choice B is incorrect because severe headache alone is not specific to IICP and can be present in various conditions. Choice C is incorrect because elevated blood pressure is not a common sign of IICP; instead, hypertension may be present in the compensatory stage. Choice D is incorrect as bradycardia and altered pupil response are signs of advanced IICP, not early signs. Monitoring and recognizing these early signs are crucial for timely intervention and preventing further complications.

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