ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Teach the client to report findings of IV extravasation
- B. Evaluate the patency of the IV
- C. Consult with the pharmacist about the prescription
- D. Verify the prescription with the provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to verify the prescription with the provider. This is crucial to prevent injury from fluid volume overload and rapid potassium infusion. Verifying the prescription ensures that the correct solution, rate, and additives are ordered according to the client's condition. While evaluating the patency of the IV is important, verifying the prescription takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Consulting with the pharmacist can be beneficial, but confirming the prescription with the provider is the immediate priority. Teaching the client about IV extravasation is important but is not the first action the nurse should take in this scenario.
2. What are the expected symptoms in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
- B. Sudden loss of consciousness
- C. Seizures and convulsions
- D. Severe headache and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' Thrombotic strokes typically result in a gradual onset of symptoms due to a blockage in a blood vessel in the brain, leading to a slow progression of neurological deficits. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, convulsions, severe headache, and vomiting are more commonly associated with other types of strokes or medical conditions, such as hemorrhagic strokes, epilepsy, or migraines.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- B. Positive Chvostek's sign
- C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- D. Dry mucous membranes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected deep tendon reflexes occur with hyponatremia. Other manifestations of hyponatremia include headache, confusion, lethargy, fatigue, seizures, and muscle weakness. Positive Chvostek's sign is associated with hypocalcemia, hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically related to hyponatremia, and dry mucous membranes are more commonly seen with dehydration.
4. A client who has burn injuries covering their upper body is concerned about their altered appearance. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. It is okay to not want to touch the burned areas of your body.
- B. Cosmetic surgery should be performed within the next year to be effective.
- C. Reconstructive surgery can completely restore your previous appearance.
- D. It could be helpful for you to attend a support group for people who have burn injuries.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to attend a support group for individuals who have burn injuries. Support groups can provide emotional support, shared experiences, and coping strategies for accepting their altered appearance. Choice A is not the best response as it does not offer proactive support. Choice B is not appropriate as the timing of cosmetic surgery should be determined by healthcare providers, not immediate. Choice C is misleading as reconstructive surgery may improve appearance but may not completely restore the previous look.
5. What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin levels
- D. Serum albumin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.
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