what is an escharotomy and why is it performed
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. What is an escharotomy and why is it performed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure involving an incision through the eschar (dead tissue) to relieve pressure in burn injuries. It is performed to improve circulation to the affected area, prevent further damage, and restore blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily focused on removing dead tissue but rather on relieving pressure. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a procedure related to pulmonary issues, not burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect because while pain relief may be a result of an escharotomy, it is not the primary purpose of the procedure.

2. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.

3. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for muscle weakness in a patient with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Checking deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Seizures (Choice C) are more commonly associated with low calcium levels rather than low potassium levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is a symptom of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increase in the circumference of the client's upper arm by 10% could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition. Deep vein thrombosis can impede blood flow and potentially lead to life-threatening complications. Therefore, the nurse should notify the provider immediately about this finding. Choice A is not an immediate concern as PICC dressing changes are usually done every 7 days. Choice C is a normal finding as catheters may not be used for certain periods. Choice D is a correct procedure for maintaining catheter patency after medication use.

5. What should be monitored for in a patient with compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome that indicate inadequate blood flow to the affected area. These symptoms are crucial to monitor as they signify a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling may be present but are not the primary indicators. Fever and infection are also not specific to compartment syndrome, and muscle weakness and fatigue are not typically prominent symptoms of this condition.

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