ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What is an escharotomy and why is it performed?
- A. A surgical incision made to improve circulation in burn injuries
- B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from a wound
- C. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the lungs
- D. A procedure to relieve pain from burns
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure involving an incision through the eschar (dead tissue) to relieve pressure in burn injuries. It is performed to improve circulation to the affected area, prevent further damage, and restore blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily focused on removing dead tissue but rather on relieving pressure. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a procedure related to pulmonary issues, not burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect because while pain relief may be a result of an escharotomy, it is not the primary purpose of the procedure.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Place several pillows behind the client's head
- B. Place the client in a Sim's position
- C. Keep the client's neck in a midline position
- D. Maintain flexion of the client's hips at a 90° angle
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the client's neck in a midline position is crucial for managing increased intracranial pressure. This position helps optimize blood flow and minimizes the risk of further increasing ICP. Placing several pillows behind the client's head (Choice A) may inadvertently elevate the head, potentially worsening ICP. Placing the client in a Sim's position (Choice B) or maintaining flexion of the client's hips at a 90° angle (Choice D) are not directly related to managing increased ICP.
3. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?
- A. Yogurt
- B. Apples
- C. Raisins
- D. Cheddar cheese
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.
4. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
- B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
- C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
- D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.
5. What should be monitored in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor for respiratory distress
- C. Monitor for hypertension
- D. Monitor for hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: In a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia, monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial. This helps in preventing and identifying hypoglycemia promptly. Choice B, monitoring for respiratory distress, is not directly related to hypoglycemia caused by insulin. Choice C, monitoring for hypertension, is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Choice D, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is not a common concern in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia.
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