Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 DM about hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Exercise reduces the risk for hypoglycemia.
• B. I can skip my insulin when I don't eat.
• C. I can drink 4 oz of soda if my blood sugar is low.
• D. Diabetic pills don't cause hypoglycemia; only insulin does.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client can correct any development of hypoglycemia with a quick intake of glucose. The client should have 15 g carbohydrates on hand to treat hypoglycemic episodes, like 4 oz of regular soda.

2. What is the priority action for a patient experiencing chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Obtain IV access
• C. Check the patient's cardiac enzymes
• D. Administer aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels and improving blood flow to the heart, which is crucial in managing acute coronary syndrome. While obtaining IV access and checking cardiac enzymes are important steps in the assessment and management of acute coronary syndrome, administering nitroglycerin takes precedence to alleviate symptoms and reduce cardiac tissue damage. Administering aspirin is also essential in the treatment of acute coronary syndrome, but it is not the immediate priority in this scenario.

3. A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. Distended, board-like abdomen
• B. WBC count of 15,000/mm3
• C. Rebound tenderness over McBurney's point
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen should be reported to the provider immediately because it indicates peritonitis, a serious complication of appendicitis resulting from a ruptured appendix. Option B, an elevated WBC count, may indicate infection but is not as urgent as a board-like abdomen. Option C, rebound tenderness over McBurney's point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate immediate life-threatening complications. Option D, a slightly elevated temperature, is not as concerning as a distended, board-like abdomen.

4. What is the most likely cause of continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube?

• A. An air leak
• B. A blockage in the chest tube
• C. Normal chest tube function
• D. Drainage from the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube usually indicates an air leak. An air leak can disrupt the negative pressure required for the chest tube to function properly, leading to inadequate drainage and potential complications. A blockage in the chest tube would typically result in decreased or absent drainage rather than continuous bubbling. Normal chest tube function does not involve continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Drainage from the chest tube may lead to fluid moving into the drainage system, but it would not cause continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.

5. What are the expected symptoms in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness
• C. Seizures and convulsions
• D. Severe headache and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' Thrombotic strokes typically result in a gradual onset of symptoms due to a blockage in a blood vessel in the brain, leading to a slow progression of neurological deficits. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, convulsions, severe headache, and vomiting are more commonly associated with other types of strokes or medical conditions, such as hemorrhagic strokes, epilepsy, or migraines.

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