a nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease ckd which of the following referrals should the nurse pla

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which of the following referrals should the nurse plan to initiate?

A. Respiratory therapy
B. Hospice care
C. Occupational therapy
D. Dietary services

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dietary services. Referring the client to dietary services is essential for managing nutrition, including monitoring sodium, potassium, and protein intake, which are crucial aspects of managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Respiratory therapy (choice A) focuses on managing respiratory conditions, which are not directly related to CKD. Hospice care (choice B) is not appropriate for a new diagnosis of CKD as it is designed for end-of-life care. Occupational therapy (choice C) is beneficial for improving activities of daily living but is not the priority referral for a new CKD diagnosis.

2. What are the expected symptoms in a patient with compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Localized swelling and redness
C. Fever and swelling
D. Weakness and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms are classic signs of compartment syndrome, which is a serious condition characterized by reduced circulation in a closed muscle compartment. The pain is typically severe and disproportionate to the injury, and if left untreated, it can lead to tissue damage and loss of function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the hallmark symptoms of compartment syndrome. Localized swelling and redness may be present but are not specific to this condition. Fever and swelling are more indicative of inflammation or infection, while weakness and fatigue are nonspecific and do not typically occur in isolation in compartment syndrome.

3. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

A. Increased risk of infection
B. Increased risk of bleeding
C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
D. Increased risk of cardiac complications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

4. What is the first medication to give to a patient with wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

A. Albuterol via nebulizer
B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction because it is a fast-acting bronchodilator that helps to quickly open the airways, providing immediate relief of symptoms. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory effects but is not the initial medication for acute wheezing in an allergic reaction. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer that can be used for prevention but is not the first choice for acute symptom relief. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator with a narrow therapeutic window and more side effects compared to Albuterol, making it a less preferred option as the initial treatment.

5. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
B. Increase protein intake to 1.5 g/kg/day
C. Restrict sodium intake to 1 g/day
D. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excess phosphorus can lead to complications such as bone and heart issues in these patients. Increasing protein intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended as it can lead to increased waste production that the kidneys may struggle to eliminate. Restricting sodium intake (Choice C) is important for managing blood pressure, but the recommendation is usually higher than 1 g/day. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not typically advised in patients with kidney disease, as they often need to limit potassium due to impaired kidney function.