ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which of the following referrals should the nurse plan to initiate?
- A. Respiratory therapy
- B. Hospice care
- C. Occupational therapy
- D. Dietary services
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dietary services. Referring the client to dietary services is essential for managing nutrition, including monitoring sodium, potassium, and protein intake, which are crucial aspects of managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Respiratory therapy (choice A) focuses on managing respiratory conditions, which are not directly related to CKD. Hospice care (choice B) is not appropriate for a new diagnosis of CKD as it is designed for end-of-life care. Occupational therapy (choice C) is beneficial for improving activities of daily living but is not the priority referral for a new CKD diagnosis.
2. A patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations. What should the nurse suggest?
- A. Limit protein intake
- B. Limit potassium intake
- C. Restrict sodium intake
- D. Limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, it is crucial to limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day to manage their condition. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications such as bone and heart problems. Limiting protein intake is essential in later stages of kidney disease, particularly in dialysis patients to reduce the buildup of waste products. While limiting potassium and restricting sodium intake are also important in kidney disease management, the priority for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to control phosphorus levels.
3. What are the expected findings in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- B. Seizures and confusion
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Muscle weakness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia is commonly associated with cardiac dysrhythmias due to the role potassium plays in maintaining proper electrical conduction in the heart. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While hypokalemia can lead to muscle weakness, the most critical and life-threatening manifestation is cardiac dysrhythmias. Seizures and confusion are more commonly associated with other electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia. Bradycardia is not a typical finding in hypokalemia, as it tends to cause tachycardia or other arrhythmias.
4. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Monitor for muscle weakness
- B. Monitor for bradycardia
- C. Check deep tendon reflexes
- D. Monitor for hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common symptom of hypokalemia and should be closely monitored in affected patients. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and even paralysis. While bradycardia (slow heart rate) can be associated with severe hypokalemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is more specific to the condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes is not typically a primary monitoring parameter for hypokalemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to hypokalemia, as hypokalemia is primarily associated with potassium levels in the blood.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 DM about hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Exercise reduces the risk for hypoglycemia.
- B. I can skip my insulin when I don't eat.
- C. I can drink 4 oz of soda if my blood sugar is low.
- D. Diabetic pills don't cause hypoglycemia; only insulin does.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client can correct any development of hypoglycemia with a quick intake of glucose. The client should have 15 g carbohydrates on hand to treat hypoglycemic episodes, like 4 oz of regular soda.
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