LPN LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.
2. A client with chronic heart failure is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?
- A. Take the medication at the same time each day.
- B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- C. Skip a dose if you feel well.
- D. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taking digoxin at the same time each day is essential to maintain a consistent blood level of the medication. This consistency helps optimize the therapeutic effects of digoxin in managing chronic heart failure. Deviating from the scheduled time could lead to fluctuations in drug levels, affecting its effectiveness and potentially causing harm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding potassium-rich foods, skipping doses when feeling well, and taking the medication on an empty stomach are not relevant or appropriate instructions for a client prescribed digoxin.
3. The client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is scheduled for a stress test. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client before the test?
- A. Continue taking your usual dose of beta-blockers
- B. Refrain from eating or drinking anything for 4 hours before the test
- C. Wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes
- D. Avoid any physical activity for 24 hours before the test
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before a stress test, the nurse should instruct the client to wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes. This is essential as the stress test involves physical exercise, and the client should be ready for the activity involved. Continuing beta-blockers should be based on healthcare provider's instructions; adjustments may be needed. Fasting before the test is usually not necessary. Avoiding physical activity for 24 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the accuracy of the test results by not providing a true reflection of the client's exercise capacity.
4. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin tablets. How should the nurse instruct the client to take the medication?
- A. Swallow the tablet whole with water
- B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve
- C. Chew the tablet and then swallow
- D. Place the tablet between the cheek and gum
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is most effective when administered sublingually (under the tongue) as it is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream. Placing the tablet under the tongue allows for quick absorption and faster relief of angina symptoms. Chewing the tablet, swallowing it, or placing it between the cheek and gum would not provide the same rapid onset of action needed during an angina episode. Therefore, the correct instruction for the client is to place the nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve for optimal effectiveness.
5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN expect to assist with first?
- A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Prepare the client for intubation.
- D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with pulmonary edema, placing them in a high Fowler's position is the priority intervention. This position helps to improve ventilation and oxygenation by decreasing venous return, reducing the workload on the heart, and facilitating fluid redistribution from the lungs. It is crucial to optimize respiratory function and oxygenation before considering other interventions like administering medications, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter. Administering a diuretic, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter may be necessary but should follow the priority of improving oxygenation through positioning.
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