Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is being discharged with a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?

• A. Store the tablets in a cool, dry place away from light.
• B. Take a tablet every 5 minutes if chest pain occurs.
• C. Place the tablets under the tongue for sublingual absorption.
• D. Take the tablets without water for faster effect.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nitroglycerin tablets are light and moisture-sensitive, so they should be stored in a cool, dry place away from light to maintain their effectiveness. Option B advises taking a tablet every 5 minutes, which may lead to overdose as this frequency is too high. Option C emphasizes the correct administration route for sublingual tablets. Option D is incorrect as water is not needed for the tablets to take effect.

2. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.

3. A healthcare professional is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Administer the injection into the abdomen.
• B. Avoid massaging the injection site after administration.
• C. Expect mild bruising at the injection site.
• D. Avoid alternating injection sites between the arms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering enoxaparin into the abdomen is recommended to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness. Massaging the injection site after administration should be avoided as it can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising. Mild bruising at the injection site is common with enoxaparin and should be expected. Alternating injection sites, especially between arms, is not suitable for enoxaparin administration. Consistent administration into the abdomen is preferred for consistent absorption of the medication.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
• B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
• D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.

5. A client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) two days ago reports chest pain radiating to the left arm. What should the nurse do immediately?

• A. Administer morphine
• B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
• D. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining an ECG is crucial in this situation because it helps in assessing for potential complications, such as a recurrent MI or ongoing ischemia. This diagnostic test provides valuable information to guide further interventions and treatment. Administering morphine, oxygen, or nitroglycerin may be necessary but obtaining an ECG takes precedence to evaluate the cardiac status and determine the appropriate course of action. Administering morphine without assessing the current cardiac status through an ECG can mask important diagnostic clues. Applying oxygen and administering nitroglycerin are supportive measures that can follow the ECG to address potential hypoxia and ischemic pain relief, respectively.

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