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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks pregnant and has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. How far apart are your contractions?
- C. Do you have any active lesions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is whether the client has any active herpes lesions. This is crucial because the presence of active lesions can necessitate a cesarean section to prevent transmission of the virus to the newborn. Asking about membrane rupture (choice A) is important but not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status. Inquiring about the frequency of contractions (choice B) is relevant for assessing labor progression but does not address the immediate concern of herpes transmission. Asking about being positive for beta strep (choice D) is important for determining the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor, but it is not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status.
2. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which result should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. WBC 3,000/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 250,000/mm³
- D. Serum sodium 140 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: WBC 3,000/mm³. A WBC count of 3,000/mm³ indicates neutropenia, which is a condition characterized by a low level of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection and requires immediate medical attention, especially in clients undergoing chemotherapy. Reporting this result to the provider promptly is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL, platelet count of 250,000/mm³, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L are all normal values and would not typically require immediate reporting unless there are specific concerns related to the individual client's condition.
3. A nurse is reviewing a prescription for doxazosin with a client. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Decrease caloric intake to reduce weight gain
- B. Increase dietary fiber to prevent constipation
- C. Rise slowly when sitting up
- D. Take this medication each morning
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rise slowly when sitting up.' Doxazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up, leading to dizziness or fainting. Instructing the client to rise slowly helps prevent this adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A decrease in caloric intake to reduce weight gain, an increase in dietary fiber to prevent constipation, and taking the medication each morning are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects of doxazosin.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Restrict protein intake to the RDA
- C. Increase dietary potassium
- D. Encourage foods high in sodium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with chronic renal failure is to restrict protein intake to the RDA. This is important because limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste products that the kidneys are unable to efficiently excrete. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) may further burden the kidneys, increasing the risk of fluid overload. Increasing dietary potassium (choice C) is not recommended in chronic renal failure as impaired kidneys have difficulty regulating potassium levels. Encouraging foods high in sodium (choice D) is also not appropriate as excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, which are detrimental in renal failure.
5. A nurse is planning care for four clients. Which client is the highest priority?
- A. Client with dry, black eschar on the heel
- B. Client wearing an arm cast and reporting numb fingers
- C. Client with reddened skin around the coccyx
- D. Client with frequent incontinence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because numb fingers indicate neurovascular compromise, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The priority in this situation is to assess and address any circulation issues affecting the extremity. Choices A, C, and D are of concern but not as immediate as neurovascular compromise, which requires urgent attention to prevent further complications.
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