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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication of magnesium toxicity?
- A. Blood glucose of 160 mg/dL
- B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
- C. Systolic BP of 140 mm Hg
- D. Respiratory rate of 20/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine output of 20 mL/hour. Urine output below 30 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity due to the risk of accumulation in the body. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, systolic blood pressure, and normal respiratory rate are not specific signs of magnesium toxicity.
2. A nurse is teaching a client with mild persistent asthma about montelukast. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
- A. I will use this for asthma attacks.
- B. I should take this before exercise.
- C. This medication will decrease swelling and mucus production.
- D. I can stop this medication after 10 days.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that helps reduce swelling and mucus production in the airways, making it useful for long-term asthma management.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations
- B. Drainage collection chamber is 1/3 full
- C. 1 cm of water present in the water seal chamber
- D. Suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O
Correct answer: C
Rationale: 1 cm of water in the water seal chamber is insufficient to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube. The water seal chamber typically requires a water level of 2 cm. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations (choice A) is an expected finding indicating proper functioning. Having the drainage collection chamber 1/3 full (choice B) is within the normal range. A suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O (choice D) is an appropriate level for chest tube drainage.
4. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client scheduled to receive chemotherapy for the first time
- B. A client post-appendectomy with diminished bowel sounds
- C. A client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous
- D. A client with burns requiring a sterile dressing change
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous should be assessed first as this may indicate a critical condition, possibly related to severe hypothyroidism. Stupor is a state of near-unconsciousness or insensibility, suggesting a decline in neurological function that requires immediate evaluation. Choices A, B, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent assessment. While chemotherapy, post-appendectomy complications, and burn care are important, they do not pose the same level of immediate risk as a stuporous client.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which finding indicates this condition?
- A. Abnormal mouth movements
- B. Inability to stand without assistance
- C. Paralysis of the right arm
- D. Loss of appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Abnormal mouth movements are a key sign of dysphagia, a condition commonly seen in stroke clients. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, which can manifest as abnormal movements of the mouth during eating or drinking. In stroke patients, dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration, where food or liquids enter the airway instead of the esophagus, leading to potential complications such as pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are not directly indicative of dysphagia. Inability to stand without assistance may indicate motor deficits, paralysis of the right arm suggests a neurological impairment, and loss of appetite can be a non-specific symptom in many conditions but does not specifically point to dysphagia.
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