pn ati capstone proctored comprehensive assessment form a PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A - Nursing Elites
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. While assessing four clients, which client data should be reported to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, necessitating immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases susceptibility to infections, making it essential to report this finding promptly. The other options, such as pain level in pleurisy, drainage amount from a drain, and heart rate postoperatively, are important but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent provider notification.

2. A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.

3. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous should be assessed first as this may indicate a critical condition, possibly related to severe hypothyroidism. Stupor is a state of near-unconsciousness or insensibility, suggesting a decline in neurological function that requires immediate evaluation. Choices A, B, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent assessment. While chemotherapy, post-appendectomy complications, and burn care are important, they do not pose the same level of immediate risk as a stuporous client.

4. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client with chronic renal failure needs dietary instructions. Which of the following should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to restrict protein intake. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, so limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste in the body. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not typically necessary unless there is a specific deficiency. Providing a diet high in potassium (Choice B) is contraindicated as potassium levels need to be monitored and controlled in renal failure. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the individual's condition, but restricting protein intake is a more critical dietary instruction for clients with chronic renal failure.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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