ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Feelings of dread
- B. Rapid speech
- C. Purposeless activity
- D. Heightened perceptual field
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.
2. A healthcare provider is educating a patient on the use of alendronate. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Take it with food
- B. Take it once a week
- C. It can be taken at bedtime
- D. Monitor for increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take it once a week.' Alendronate is typically taken once a week to treat osteoporosis. It should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning with a full glass of water. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning, not at bedtime. Choice D is unrelated to alendronate use and not a common side effect associated with this medication.
3. A client scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “I should not wash my hair before the procedure.”
- B. “I will be given a sedative 1 hour before the procedure.”
- C. “I should refrain from eating before the procedure.”
- D. “I will be exposed to flashes of light during the procedure.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electroencephalogram (EEG), flashes of light or patterns are often used to stimulate the brain and provoke responses, helping to assess brain activity and the potential for seizures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing the hair, receiving a sedative, and refraining from eating are not usually related to EEG procedures and do not reflect understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse.
4. A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the management of hypoglycemia. Which sign should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Polyuria
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. Thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia. Instructing the client to monitor for diaphoresis is crucial as it can help them recognize and address hypoglycemic events promptly. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical signs of hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific indicators of low blood sugar levels.
5. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.
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