Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for four clients. Which of the following tasks can the healthcare provider delegate to an assistive personnel?

• A. Perform chest compressions during cardiac resuscitation
• B. Perform a dressing change for a new amputee
• C. Assess the effectiveness of antiemetic medication
• D. Provide discharge instructions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing chest compressions during cardiac resuscitation is a critical life-saving intervention that can be delegated to an assistive personnel during an emergency. This task requires immediate action and basic training, making it appropriate for delegation. Performing a dressing change for a new amputee involves specialized knowledge and skills, typically performed by licensed healthcare providers. Assessing the effectiveness of medication requires critical thinking and decision-making skills that are within the scope of a licensed healthcare provider. Providing discharge instructions involves educating the patient on post-discharge care and follow-up, which is typically done by a healthcare provider to ensure clear communication and understanding.

2. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation and notes that the client has gained 5 pounds in one week. Which of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?

• A. Preeclampsia
• B. Gestational diabetes
• C. Anemia
• D. Placenta previa

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preeclampsia. Rapid weight gain, especially in the third trimester, can be a sign of preeclampsia, a condition characterized by hypertension, edema, and proteinuria. This requires immediate medical attention. Choice B, Gestational diabetes, is incorrect because rapid weight gain is not a typical symptom of gestational diabetes. Choice C, Anemia, is incorrect as weight gain is not a common sign of anemia in pregnancy. Choice D, Placenta previa, is also incorrect because weight gain is not a typical symptom of this condition, which involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix.

3. A nurse is educating a client about caloric intake and weight reduction. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
• B. If I eat 450 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
• C. If I eat 250 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
• D. If I eat 300 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.' This statement is accurate because a reduction of 500 calories per day typically results in a weight loss of 1 pound per week. This is based on the principle that a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound of body fat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established relationship between calorie reduction and weight loss. Eating 450 fewer calories per day would not lead to a weight loss of 2 pounds per week; similarly, reducing calories by 250 or 300 per day would not result in losing 2 pounds or 1 pound per week, respectively.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

• A. Low potassium diet
• B. High fiber diet
• C. Low fat diet
• D. Low sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.

5. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.
• B. I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my finger.
• C. I will not apply mineral oil on the diaphragm.
• D. I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.

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