Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for four clients. Which of the following tasks can the healthcare provider delegate to an assistive personnel?

• A. Perform chest compressions during cardiac resuscitation
• B. Perform a dressing change for a new amputee
• C. Assess the effectiveness of antiemetic medication
• D. Provide discharge instructions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing chest compressions during cardiac resuscitation is a critical life-saving intervention that can be delegated to an assistive personnel during an emergency. This task requires immediate action and basic training, making it appropriate for delegation. Performing a dressing change for a new amputee involves specialized knowledge and skills, typically performed by licensed healthcare providers. Assessing the effectiveness of medication requires critical thinking and decision-making skills that are within the scope of a licensed healthcare provider. Providing discharge instructions involves educating the patient on post-discharge care and follow-up, which is typically done by a healthcare provider to ensure clear communication and understanding.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a flu vaccine. Which of the following should the healthcare professional verify?

• A. Client's age
• B. Client's allergy to eggs
• C. Client's vaccination history
• D. Client's weight

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthcare professional should verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the flu vaccine. Verifying the client's age (choice A) is important for other vaccines but not specifically for the flu vaccine. While allergy to eggs (choice B) is relevant as the flu vaccine is traditionally produced in eggs, it is not the top priority for verification. The client's weight (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of the flu vaccine.

3. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

• A. Heart rate 120/min
• B. Urine output 30 mL/hour
• C. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
• D. Skin turgor is normal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

4. A nurse is assessing four clients for fluid balance. Which of the following clients is exhibiting manifestations of dehydration?

• A. A client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010.
• B. A client who has a weight gain of 2.2 kg (2 lb) in 24 hr.
• C. A client who has a hematocrit of 45%.
• D. A client who has a temperature of 39°C (102°F).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an elevated temperature is a common manifestation of dehydration. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 1.010 is within normal range, weight gain suggests fluid overload, and a hematocrit of 45% is also within normal limits and not specifically related to dehydration.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who is lactose intolerant about dietary choices. Which food should the nurse recommend to increase calcium intake?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice for individuals with lactose intolerance who need to avoid dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium compared to spinach, and therefore, not the best recommendation for increasing calcium intake in lactose-intolerant individuals.

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