a nurse is caring for a client receiving thiazide diuretics which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig’s sign?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Kernig’s sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding indicates meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig’s sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, choice C refers to coordination issues, and choice D describes neck pain and stiffness, which are not specific to Kernig’s sign.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following should the nurse assess for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD, the nurse should assess for the use of accessory muscles. This is important because COPD can lead to increased work of breathing, causing the client to engage accessory muscles to help with respiration. Assessing for the use of accessory muscles provides crucial information about the client's respiratory effort. Respiratory rate (Choice A) is a standard assessment parameter but may not specifically indicate the severity of COPD. Chest pain (Choice B) is not typically associated with COPD unless there are complicating factors. Oxygen saturation (Choice D) is essential to monitor in COPD clients, but assessing for the use of accessory muscles takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status in COPD.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL ÷ 15 min = 33.33, rounded to 33 gtt/min. This ensures proper delivery of the medication over the prescribed time. Choice A is incorrect because it does not factor in the precise calculation based on the given data. Choice B is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate rate of infusion required. Choice D is incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation based on the drop factor and infusion parameters provided in the question.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client. Which of the following findings indicates a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A TPN solution with an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top indicates that the solution is 'cracked' and should not be used as it may have separated or deteriorated. This finding suggests a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering. Options B, C, and D are normal aspects of TPN administration. Option B confirms the presence of essential components in the TPN solution, option C provides information about the preparation time, and option D ensures proper identification and matching of the TPN with the correct client.

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