a nurse is assessing a client for signs of dehydration which of the following findings should the nurse look for
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic sign of dehydration. In dehydration, the body loses more water than it takes in, leading to dryness of mucous membranes like the mouth and throat. Edema (choice A) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues, which is not a typical sign of dehydration. Weight gain (choice C) is also not a common sign of dehydration; in fact, dehydration usually leads to weight loss. Increased urination (choice D) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or diuretic use, not dehydration.

2. A nurse on the medical-surgical unit is receiving reports on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat should be assessed first. This client may be experiencing airway obstruction due to hematoma or swelling, making it a priority. Options A, B, and C have concerning findings as well, but airway compromise takes precedence over other issues.

3. A nurse is caring for a group of clients in a long-term care facility. Which of the following situations should the nurse recognize as a safety hazard?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tying wrist restraints to the bed rails is a safety hazard because if the bed rails are lowered, the restraints can tighten and cause injury or asphyxiation. Choice B, placing a bedside table across the foot of the bed, may not be ideal for convenience but does not pose a direct safety hazard. Choice C, leaving a meal tray at the bedside from breakfast, is more of an infection control issue than an immediate safety hazard. Choice D, having a call light extension cord pinned to the bedspread, is also not a direct safety hazard unless it poses a risk of entanglement or tripping, which is not indicated in the scenario.

4. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

5. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

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