Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to administer an injection of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure client safety?

• A. Instruct the client to take a deep breath during administration.
• B. Administer the medication over 30 seconds.
• C. Verify the client’s pain level.
• D. Have naloxone available in case of respiratory depression.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to have naloxone available in case of respiratory depression. Morphine is an opioid that can lead to respiratory depression, especially in higher doses. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose and should be readily accessible when administering morphine to reverse respiratory depression if it occurs. Instructing the client to take a deep breath during administration (choice A) is not directly related to ensuring safety in this scenario. Administering the medication over 30 seconds (choice B) may help with the comfort of the client but does not address the potential risk of respiratory depression. Verifying the client's pain level (choice C) is important but not the primary action to ensure safety when administering morphine.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of losartan. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first. Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker used to lower blood pressure. Assessing the patient's blood pressure before administering losartan is crucial to ensure it is not already too low, which could lead to hypotension. Assessing heart rate (choice B) is important but not the priority when administering losartan. Serum potassium levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are also important assessments, but they are not the primary concern before administering losartan.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Paradoxical pulse
• B. Dependent edema
• C. Pericardial friction rub
• D. Substernal chest pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A paradoxical pulse is a sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis that requires immediate intervention. It results from decreased cardiac output due to increased pressure in the pericardial sac. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely treatment to prevent further deterioration. Dependent edema and substernal chest pain are common in pericarditis but are not as urgent as a paradoxical pulse. A pericardial friction rub is a classic finding in pericarditis and indicates inflammation but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a prescription for home oxygen. Which information should the nurse teach?

• A. Use a humidifier with the oxygen
• B. Wear cotton socks when the oxygen is in use
• C. Avoid all types of smoking materials
• D. Use a nasal cannula during meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Wear cotton socks when the oxygen is in use.' This information is important as wearing cotton socks helps prevent static electricity, which can pose a fire risk when oxygen is in use. Choice A is incorrect as using a humidifier with oxygen is not necessary for all clients and may not be part of standard discharge teaching. Choice C is incorrect as it is a common safety measure to avoid all types of smoking materials when using oxygen. Choice D is incorrect as using a nasal cannula during meals is not specifically related to the safety concerns associated with home oxygen use.

5. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
• B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
• C. No action is needed at this time.
• D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

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