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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 6 liters/minute if the client is short of breath.
- B. Instruct the client to breathe deeply and cough frequently.
- C. Use a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate.
- D. Encourage the client to remove the oxygen when eating or drinking.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the appropriate intervention for clients with COPD receiving oxygen therapy. High flow rates can lead to respiratory depression in COPD patients. This intervention helps maintain a safe and controlled oxygen delivery to prevent potential complications associated with high oxygen flow rates.
2. A primipara at 38-weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for a biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should prepare the client for what procedures?
- A. Chorionic villus sampling under ultrasound.
- B. Amniocentesis and fetal monitoring.
- C. Ultrasonography and nonstress test.
- D. Oxytocin challenge test and fetal heart rate monitoring.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A biophysical profile (BPP) is a prenatal test that assesses the well-being of the fetus. It typically includes ultrasonography to evaluate fetal movements, muscle tone, breathing movements, and amniotic fluid volume. Additionally, a nonstress test is performed to monitor the fetal heart rate in response to its movements. These tests help in determining the overall health and viability of the fetus, making them essential components of prenatal care for assessing fetal well-being.
3. Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?
- A. A client with GI bleeding who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7 grams.
- B. A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl today and had 160 mg/dl yesterday.
- C. A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.
- D. A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count < 500 today and had 2,000 yesterday.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden drop in neutrophil count to below 500 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infections. Neutrophils are essential for fighting off infections, and a significant decrease in their count can compromise the client's immune response. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent the development of serious infections in the client with neutropenia.
4. What dietary advice should the nurse provide to help reduce the occurrence of hot flashes in a post-menopausal client?
- A. Increase intake of spicy foods.
- B. Limit caffeine and alcohol consumption.
- C. Consume a high-protein diet.
- D. Eat more dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Limiting caffeine and alcohol consumption is recommended to help reduce the frequency of hot flashes in post-menopausal individuals. Caffeine and alcohol can trigger hot flashes and worsen their occurrence. Encouraging the client to reduce these stimulants in their diet may help alleviate hot flashes and improve their quality of life.
5. A client with cirrhosis of the liver is being cared for by the healthcare team. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the client has developed hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Asterixis.
- B. Jaundice.
- C. Ascites.
- D. Splenomegaly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremor, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy, a severe complication of liver cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy results from the liver's inability to detoxify substances in the body, leading to neurologic manifestations such as changes in mental status, confusion, and asterixis.
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