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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale
- B. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee
- C. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis proximal to the right knee
- D. Optic nerve using an ophthalmoscope
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee to evaluate for neurovascular compromise. This assessment helps determine the perfusion and sensation of the lower extremity, which is crucial in identifying potential vascular or nerve damage that may be causing the client's symptoms.
2. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, and a drop in blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the TPN infusion.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
- D. Administer oxygen at 2 liters/minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg position should be the initial action as it can help manage a suspected air embolism, a potential complication of TPN administration. This position helps trap air in the apex of the atrium, reducing the risk of air reaching the pulmonary circulation and causing further harm. Once the client is in a safe position, further actions such as stopping the TPN infusion, notifying the healthcare provider, and administering oxygen can be taken as appropriate.
3. A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?
- A. Give magnesium via secondary infusion.
- B. Initiate IV heparin solution as per protocol.
- C. Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
- D. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering IV adenosine is the appropriate intervention for a client with symptomatic tachycardia to restore normal sinus rhythm. Adenosine is a medication used to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) by interrupting the reentry pathways through the AV node and restoring normal sinus rhythm. It is a rapid-acting medication given as a rapid IV push followed by a saline flush. The dose is typically administered in a healthcare setting where cardiac monitoring is available due to its potential to cause transient asystole.
4. During an admission physical assessment, the nurse is examining a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the pediatric healthcare provider?
- A. Heel stick glucose of 65 mg/dL.
- B. Head circumference of 35 cm (14 inches).
- C. Widened, tense, bulging fontanel.
- D. High-pitched shrill cry.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A widened, tense, bulging fontanel is a critical finding in a newborn as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure. This condition requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent further complications. Monitoring fontanel status is crucial in assessing the newborn's neurological well-being and ensuring early detection of potential issues.
5. Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?
- A. A client with GI bleeding who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7 grams.
- B. A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl today and had 160 mg/dl yesterday.
- C. A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.
- D. A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count < 500 today and had 2,000 yesterday.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden drop in neutrophil count to below 500 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infections. Neutrophils are essential for fighting off infections, and a significant decrease in their count can compromise the client's immune response. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent the development of serious infections in the client with neutropenia.
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