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ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored

1. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

2. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the changes she should expect when planning to become pregnant. Identify the correct sequence of maternal changes. A. Amenorrhea B.Lightening C. Goodell's sign D. Quickening

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence of maternal changes during pregnancy is as follows: Amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods), Goodell's sign (softening of the cervix), Quickening (first fetal movements felt by the mother), and Lightening (baby descending into the pelvis). These changes occur at different stages of pregnancy and are important indicators of fetal development and maternal adaptation. Choice A is correct as it is the initial change indicating possible pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D follow in the correct order of occurrence during pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct sequence of maternal changes.

3. A client with a BMI of 26.5 is seeking advice on weight gain during pregnancy at the first prenatal visit. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with a BMI of 26.5 (overweight), the recommended weight gain during pregnancy is 15 to 25 pounds. This range helps promote a healthy pregnancy outcome and reduces the risk of complications associated with excessive weight gain. Option A suggests a lower weight gain range, which may not be adequate for a client with a BMI of 26.5. Option C indicates a higher weight gain range, which could lead to complications for an overweight individual. Option D provides a general guideline for weight gain without considering the client's BMI, which is not personalized advice. Therefore, the most appropriate response is option B, offering a suitable weight gain recommendation for the client's BMI to support a healthy pregnancy journey.

4. During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When measuring a newborn's chest circumference, the appropriate anatomical landmark to use is the nipple line. This point is consistent and allows for accurate and standardized measurements across all newborn assessments. The sternal notch is not typically used for chest circumference measurements in newborns. The xiphoid process is located at the lower end of the sternum and is not an appropriate landmark for chest circumference measurement. The fifth intercostal space is typically used for locating the point of maximal impulse (PMI) during cardiac assessments, not for measuring chest circumference.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a newborn immediately following a scheduled cesarean delivery. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory distress. Assessing for respiratory distress is the priority when evaluating a newborn after a cesarean delivery. Newborns born via cesarean section are at higher risk for respiratory complications, making it crucial to monitor their breathing and ensure proper oxygenation immediately after birth. Choice B, hypothermia, is important too but assessing breathing takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply. Choices C and D, accidental lacerations and acrocyanosis, are not the immediate priorities following a cesarean delivery.

Similar Questions

A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A woman at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
A client who is postpartum received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?
A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?
ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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