LPN LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours.
- B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly.
- C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid.
- D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated temperature in a woman with ruptured membranes may indicate infection. Assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid can help determine if chorioamnionitis (an infection of the amniotic fluid) is present. This assessment is crucial to guide further interventions and management of the client's condition. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Rechecking the client's temperature in 4 hours does not address the immediate concern of potential infection. Administering glucocorticoids intramuscularly is not indicated based solely on an elevated temperature. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is premature and not supported by the information provided.
2. A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?
- A. A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation
- B. A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation
- C. A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation
- D. A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tocolytic therapy is used to suppress premature labor. It is appropriate to administer it to a client experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation to help delay delivery and improve neonatal outcomes. Administering tocolytic therapy to a client experiencing fetal death, Braxton-Hicks contractions, or post-term pregnancy is not indicated and may not be safe or effective in these situations. Fetal death at 32 weeks indicates a non-viable pregnancy, Braxton-Hicks contractions are normal and not indicative of preterm labor, and post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks does not require tocolytic therapy.
3. A client is 1 hour postpartum and the nurse observes a large amount of lochia rubra and several small clots on the client's perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Increase the frequency of fundal massage.
- C. Encourage the client to empty their bladder.
- D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the postpartum period, the presence of lochia rubra and small clots along with a firm, midline fundus at the umbilicus is considered normal. In this situation, the appropriate action is to document the findings and continue to monitor the client. Changes in the amount and character of lochia, deviation of the fundus from the midline, or fundal height above or below the expected level may indicate a need for further intervention. Encouraging bladder emptying is important but not the priority in this scenario. Notify the healthcare provider if there are signs of abnormal postpartum bleeding or fundal abnormalities. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because at this stage, there are no signs of abnormality that require immediate notification of the healthcare provider, increased frequency of fundal massage, or immediate bladder emptying.
4. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
- A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
- B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
- C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
- D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.
5. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. It's a minor inconvenience, which you should ignore.
- B. In most cases it only lasts until the 12th week, but it will continue if you have poor bladder tone.
- C. There is no way to predict how long it will last in each individual client.
- D. It occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Urinary frequency is common during the first trimester and again at the end of pregnancy when the baby drops into the pelvis, putting pressure on the bladder.
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