LPN LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A client is 1 hour postpartum and the nurse observes a large amount of lochia rubra and several small clots on the client's perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Increase the frequency of fundal massage.
- C. Encourage the client to empty their bladder.
- D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the postpartum period, the presence of lochia rubra and small clots along with a firm, midline fundus at the umbilicus is considered normal. In this situation, the appropriate action is to document the findings and continue to monitor the client. Changes in the amount and character of lochia, deviation of the fundus from the midline, or fundal height above or below the expected level may indicate a need for further intervention. Encouraging bladder emptying is important but not the priority in this scenario. Notify the healthcare provider if there are signs of abnormal postpartum bleeding or fundal abnormalities. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because at this stage, there are no signs of abnormality that require immediate notification of the healthcare provider, increased frequency of fundal massage, or immediate bladder emptying.
2. A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Decrease the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution.
- B. Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin.
- C. Increase the rate of infusion of the IV oxytocin.
- D. Slow the client's breathing rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The described pattern suggests late decelerations, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion helps reduce uterine contractions, improving placental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This intervention is essential to prevent fetal compromise and potential harm during labor. Choice A is incorrect because decreasing the rate of the maintenance IV solution does not directly address the cause of the late decelerations. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the rate of IV oxytocin can worsen uterine contractions, exacerbating the fetal distress. Choice D is incorrect because slowing the client's breathing rate is not indicated in the management of late decelerations during labor.
3. A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?
- A. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 4-minute rest between contractions
- B. A contraction that lasts 4 minutes followed by a period of relaxation
- C. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions
- D. Contractions that last 45 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When contractions are 4 minutes apart, it means there are 4 minutes from the start of one contraction to the start of the next. If each contraction lasts 60 seconds, there will be a 3-minute rest period between contractions. This allows for adequate uterine relaxation and recovery before the next contraction begins. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests a 4-minute rest between contractions, which is not accurate. Choice B is incorrect as contractions lasting 4 minutes continuously without rest would be concerning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests 45-second contractions instead of 60-second contractions.
4. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
- B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
- C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
- D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.
5. During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?
- A. Sternal notch
- B. Nipple line
- C. Xiphoid process
- D. Fifth intercostal space
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When measuring a newborn's chest circumference, the appropriate anatomical landmark to use is the nipple line. This point is consistent and allows for accurate and standardized measurements across all newborn assessments. The sternal notch is not typically used for chest circumference measurements in newborns. The xiphoid process is located at the lower end of the sternum and is not an appropriate landmark for chest circumference measurement. The fifth intercostal space is typically used for locating the point of maximal impulse (PMI) during cardiac assessments, not for measuring chest circumference.
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