ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Preterm newborns have a smaller body surface area than normal newborns.
- B. The added brown fat layer in a preterm newborn reduces his ability to generate heat.
- C. Preterm newborns lack adequate temperature control mechanisms.
- D. The heat in the incubator rapidly dries the sweat of preterm newborns.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because preterm newborns have immature temperature regulation mechanisms, making it difficult for them to maintain their body temperature. An incubator helps maintain a stable thermal environment. Choice A is incorrect as the body surface area is not the primary reason for needing an incubator. Choice B is incorrect because brown fat in preterm newborns actually helps generate heat. Choice D is incorrect as the purpose of the incubator is not to dry sweat but to regulate the newborn's temperature.
2. During a Leopold maneuver, a healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position. Which fetal presentation should be documented in the client's medical record?
- A. Vertex
- B. Shoulder
- C. Breech
- D. Mentum
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Breech." The RSA position indicates that the fetus is in a breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first, which can impact the mode of delivery and require close monitoring during labor and birth. Choice A (Vertex) refers to the head-first presentation, which is considered the normal and most common presentation for birth. Choice B (Shoulder) does not represent a specific fetal presentation. Choice D (Mentum) refers to the chin presentation, which is also not relevant in this scenario.
3. A newborn was transferred to the nursery 30 min after delivery. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Confirm the newborn's identification.
- B. Verify the newborn's identification.
- C. Administer vitamin K to the newborn.
- D. Determine obstetrical risk factors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a newborn is transferred to the nursery, the first action the nurse should take is to verify the newborn's identification. This step is crucial for ensuring the correct care is provided to the right newborn, promoting patient safety and preventing errors. Administering vitamin K (Choice C) is important but should not be the first action. Determining obstetrical risk factors (Choice D) is not the priority when the newborn is transferred to the nursery. Confirming (Choice A) and verifying (Choice B) have similar meanings, but 'verify' is a more appropriate term in this context.
4. A client presents with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Check the client's capillary refill.
- B. Massage the client's fundus.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter for the client.
- D. Prepare the client for a blood transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage, the priority is to address the risk of hypovolemic shock, which can lead to vital organ perfusion compromise and potentially death. Massaging the client's fundus helps to control bleeding by promoting uterine contraction and reducing blood loss, making it the nurse's priority intervention in this situation. Checking capillary refill may be important in assessing perfusion status but is not the priority over controlling the hemorrhage. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Although preparing for a blood transfusion may be necessary, addressing the primary cause of bleeding by massaging the fundus takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition.
5. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
- B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
- C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
- D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.
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