Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Preterm newborns have a smaller body surface area than normal newborns.
• B. The added brown fat layer in a preterm newborn reduces his ability to generate heat.
• C. Preterm newborns lack adequate temperature control mechanisms.
• D. The heat in the incubator rapidly dries the sweat of preterm newborns.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because preterm newborns have immature temperature regulation mechanisms, making it difficult for them to maintain their body temperature. An incubator helps maintain a stable thermal environment. Choice A is incorrect as the body surface area is not the primary reason for needing an incubator. Choice B is incorrect because brown fat in preterm newborns actually helps generate heat. Choice D is incorrect as the purpose of the incubator is not to dry sweat but to regulate the newborn's temperature.

2. A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation is reviewing a new prescription of ferrous sulfate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this pill with my breakfast.
• B. I will take this medication with a glass of milk.
• C. I plan to drink more orange juice while taking this pill.
• D. I plan to add more calcium-rich foods to my diet while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking iron supplements with orange juice, which contains vitamin C, enhances the absorption of iron, making the treatment more effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking ferrous sulfate with milk, calcium-rich foods, or breakfast may hinder iron absorption due to interactions with calcium or other substances that compete with iron absorption.

3. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?

• A. Shortly after giving birth
• B. In the third trimester
• C. Immediately
• D. During the next attempt to get pregnant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.

4. When reinforcing teaching with new parents on bathing a newborn, a nurse observes a bluish-brown marking across the newborn's lower back. Which of the following statements should the nurse make concerning the variation?

• A. This is more commonly seen in newborns who have dark skin.
• B. This is a finding indicating hyperbilirubinemia.
• C. This is a forceps mark from an operative delivery.
• D. This is related to prolonged birth or trauma during delivery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A bluish-brown marking across the lower back is more commonly seen in newborns with dark skin. These markings are known as Mongolian spots and are benign. They are not related to hyperbilirubinemia, forceps marks, or trauma during delivery. Choice B is incorrect because hyperbilirubinemia presents as jaundice, not as a bluish-brown marking. Choice C is incorrect because forceps marks would have a different appearance and location. Choice D is incorrect as Mongolian spots are not related to prolonged birth or trauma during delivery.

5. A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?

• A. Placenta previa
• B. Prolapsed cord
• C. Incompetent cervix
• D. Abruptio placentae

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.

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