Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 3 days postpartum is receiving education on effective breastfeeding. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Your milk will replace colostrum in about 10 days.
• B. Your breasts should feel firm after breastfeeding.
• C. Your newborn should urinate at least 10 times per day.
• D. Your newborn should appear content after each feeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that a baby who is sated will appear content after feedings. This indicates that the baby is effectively emptying the breasts during feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Breast milk replaces colostrum within a few days, not 10 days. B) Breasts feeling firm after breastfeeding may indicate engorgement or plugged ducts, not necessarily effective breastfeeding. C) While the frequency of urination is important, it is not directly related to effective breastfeeding.

2. A newborn is noted to have secretions bubbling out of the nose and mouth after delivery. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Suction the nose with a bulb syringe.
• B. Suction the mouth with a bulb syringe.
• C. Use a suction catheter with low negative pressure.
• D. Turn the newborn on their side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to suction the mouth with a bulb syringe. Suctioning the mouth first is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure the airway is clear, which takes precedence over suctioning the nose. This intervention helps maintain a patent airway and promotes adequate breathing in the newborn. Using a suction catheter with low negative pressure may not be appropriate as the newborn needs a gentle suction method like a bulb syringe. Turning the newborn on their side is important if there is a risk of aspiration, but clearing the mouth of secretions should be the priority to establish a clear airway.

3. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

4. A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed
• B. Awaken during the night to eat a snack
• C. Skip breakfast and eat lunch after nausea has subsided
• D. Eat a large evening meal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting in the morning are common symptoms. Eating crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed can help manage morning nausea by stabilizing blood sugar levels. This simple and easily digestible snack can alleviate symptoms by providing some sustenance to the stomach before fully waking up and moving around. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Waking up during the night to eat a snack may disrupt sleep patterns, skipping breakfast can worsen symptoms by allowing the stomach to remain empty for longer periods, and eating a large evening meal may exacerbate morning nausea due to increased stomach contents.

5. A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Cholecystitis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Migraine headaches
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cholecystitis is a correct answer. A history of gallbladder disease, such as cholecystitis, is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. Hypertension is a correct answer. Hypertension is also a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications. Migraine headaches are a correct answer. A history of migraine headaches is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives, especially for those with aura. Selecting 'All of the above' is correct as all the mentioned conditions (cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches) are contraindications for oral contraceptives. Human papillomavirus and anxiety disorder are incorrect choices as they are not contraindications for the use of oral contraceptives.

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