ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. It's a minor inconvenience, which you should ignore.
- B. In most cases it only lasts until the 12th week, but it will continue if you have poor bladder tone.
- C. There is no way to predict how long it will last in each individual client.
- D. It occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Urinary frequency is common during the first trimester and again at the end of pregnancy when the baby drops into the pelvis, putting pressure on the bladder.
2. A client in the delivery room just delivered a newborn, and the nurse is planning to promote parent-infant bonding. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Encourage the parents to touch and explore the newborn's features
- B. Limit noise and interruptions in the delivery room
- C. Place the newborn at the client's breast
- D. Position the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Positioning the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest is the priority action to promote warmth, regulate the newborn's heart rate and breathing, and enhance parent-infant bonding. This method facilitates early bonding, stabilizes the baby's temperature, and encourages breastfeeding initiation. Encouraging parents to touch and explore the newborn's features is important but not the priority at this moment. Limiting noise and interruptions can be beneficial but not as crucial as skin-to-skin contact for bonding. Placing the newborn at the client's breast is essential for breastfeeding but should come after the initial skin-to-skin contact for bonding and temperature regulation.
3. A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Reduced menstrual flow
- B. Breast tenderness
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.
4. During a weekly prenatal visit, a nurse is assessing a client at 38 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 136/88 mm Hg
- B. Report of insomnia
- C. Weight gain of 2.2 kg (4.8 lb)
- D. Report of Braxton-Hicks contractions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2.2 kg (4.8 lb) in a week is above the expected reference range for a client at 38 weeks of gestation and could indicate complications such as preeclampsia or gestational hypertension. Rapid weight gain at this stage requires immediate attention and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority findings to report to the provider at this stage of gestation. Blood pressure of 136/88 mm Hg is within normal limits in pregnancy, insomnia is common in the third trimester, and Braxton-Hicks contractions are expected in the third trimester as the body prepares for labor.
5. A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. After an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, and the placenta, fetus, and tissues remain in the uterus. How should the nurse document these findings?
- A. Incomplete miscarriage
- B. Missed miscarriage
- C. Inevitable miscarriage
- D. Complete miscarriage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Missed miscarriage.' In a missed miscarriage, fetal and placental tissues are retained in the uterus after fetal demise, which matches the scenario described in the question. This situation often requires medical or surgical intervention to remove the remaining products of conception and prevent complications. 'Incomplete miscarriage' (Choice A) typically involves partial expulsion of products of conception, 'Inevitable miscarriage' (Choice C) indicates that miscarriage is in progress and cannot be stopped, and 'Complete miscarriage' (Choice D) signifies that all products of conception have been expelled from the uterus.
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