ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is to receive oxytocin to augment labor. Which finding contraindicates the initiation of the oxytocin infusion and should be reported to the provider?
- A. Late decelerations
- B. Moderate variability of the FHR
- C. Cessation of uterine dilation
- D. Prolonged active phase of labor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Late decelerations are indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by oxytocin administration, potentially compromising fetal well-being. Therefore, detecting late decelerations should prompt immediate reporting to the provider to prevent harm to the fetus. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindications for initiating oxytocin infusion. Moderate variability of the FHR is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being, cessation of uterine dilation may indicate a pause in labor progress but does not contraindicate oxytocin, and prolonged active phase of labor may necessitate oxytocin administration to augment contractions and progress labor.
2. A client in labor requests epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Position the client supine for 30 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
- B. Administer 1,000 mL of dextrose 5% in water after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
- C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
- D. Ensure the client has been NPO for 4 hours before the placement of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is to monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 to 10 minutes following the first dose of anesthetic solution to assess for maternal hypotension. This is crucial to detect and manage potential complications associated with the epidural anesthesia. Positioning the client supine for a prolonged period can lead to hypotension; administering dextrose solution is not a standard practice in epidural anesthesia; ensuring NPO status for 4 hours is not necessary before epidural placement.
3. A healthcare provider is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?
- A. Assess deep tendon reflexes every hour.
- B. Obtain a daily weight.
- C. Continuous fetal monitoring
- D. Ambulate twice daily
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating twice daily is not recommended for a client with severe preeclampsia. Clients with severe preeclampsia are at risk for seizures and should be on bed rest to prevent complications. Ambulation can increase blood pressure and the risk of seizure activity in these clients. Assessing deep tendon reflexes, obtaining a daily weight, and continuous fetal monitoring are all appropriate and important interventions for a client with severe preeclampsia to monitor for signs of worsening condition and fetal well-being.
4. When reinforcing discharge teaching to the parents of a newborn regarding circumcision care, which statement made by a parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. The circumcision will heal within a couple of days.
- B. I should not remove the yellow mucus that will form.
- C. I will clean the penis with each diaper change.
- D. I will give him a tub bath within a couple of days.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because cleaning the penis with each diaper change is essential for preventing infection and promoting healing after circumcision. This practice helps maintain good hygiene and reduces the risk of complications. Removing the yellow mucus or giving a tub bath too soon can interfere with the healing process and increase the likelihood of infection. Choice A is incorrect because circumcision healing usually takes about a week or more, not just a couple of days. Choice B is incorrect because parents should gently clean the area, including removing any discharge or debris as part of proper care. Choice D is incorrect because tub baths should be avoided until the circumcision is fully healed to prevent infection.
5. A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?
- A. Using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs.
- B. A diaphragm should be removed 2 hours after intercourse.
- C. Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne.
- D. A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This statement demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of proper condom use to maximize protection. Choice B is incorrect because a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure contraceptive effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in some cases. Choice D is incorrect because a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.
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