a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria pku which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the clien
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ATI Maternal Newborn

1. A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) have difficulty breaking down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods like peanut butter. Therefore, clients with PKU should avoid foods high in phenylalanine, such as peanut butter, to prevent adverse effects on their health. Choices B, C, and D are not typically high in phenylalanine and do not pose the same risk to individuals with PKU as peanut butter.

2. When should a provider order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening for pregnant clients?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended for all pregnant clients to assess the risk of neural tube defects. It is a routine screening test used to detect increased levels of alpha-fetoprotein in maternal blood, which may indicate a higher risk for conditions such as neural tube defects in the developing fetus. Therefore, all pregnant clients, regardless of their medical history or risk factors, should undergo MSAFP screening as part of routine prenatal care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the MSAFP screening is not specific to certain medical conditions or histories; it is a standard screening procedure for all pregnant individuals to evaluate neural tube defect risk in the fetus.

3. A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.

4. When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Question: When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation, potentially leading to a decrease in blood pressure and side effects such as dizziness. Monitoring for dizziness is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with nifedipine use for preventing preterm labor. Blood-tinged sputum may indicate other conditions like pulmonary issues, pallor could suggest anemia or circulatory problems, and somnolence is not a common side effect of nifedipine.

5. A client at 28 weeks of gestation received terbutaline. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that works by relaxing the uterine muscles, leading to weakened uterine contractions. This effect helps to prevent preterm labor. Therefore, the nurse should expect weakened uterine contractions in a client who has received terbutaline at 28 weeks of gestation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Terbutaline administration would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, enhance fetal lung surfactant production, or cause maternal hypoglycemia.

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